Bill Text: MI HB5769 | 2015-2016 | 98th Legislature | Introduced
Bill Title: Human services; other; reference to certain departments in the public health code; update. Amends secs. 2501, 2640, 2701, 2723, 2882, 5131, 5456, 5474b, 5474b[1], 5656, 5887, 7203, 7411, 7421, 9141, 9701, 10301, 12103, 16204a, 16204d, 16241, 16281, 16315, 16625, 16807, 17015, 17020, 17520, 17745a, 17748c, 17775, 20106, 20115, 20156, 21313, 21332, 21601, 21716, 21766, 21773, 21777, 21799b, 21799c, 22205 & 22207 of 1978 PA 368 (MCL 333.2501 et seq.).
Spectrum: Bipartisan Bill
Status: (Introduced - Dead) 2016-09-07 - Referred To Second Reading [HB5769 Detail]
Download: Michigan-2015-HB5769-Introduced.html
HOUSE BILL No. 5769
July 13, 2016, Introduced by Reps. Kosowski, Heise, LaFontaine, Inman, Santana, Cox and Darany and referred to the Committee on Families, Children, and Seniors.
A bill to amend 1978 PA 368, entitled
"Public health code,"
by amending sections 2501, 2640, 2701, 2723, 2882, 5131, 5456,
5474b, 5474b[1], 5656, 5887, 7203, 7411, 7421, 9141, 9701, 10301,
12103, 16204a, 16204d, 16241, 16281, 16315, 16625, 16807, 17015,
17020, 17520, 17745a, 17748c, 17775, 20106, 20115, 20156, 21313,
21332, 21601, 21716, 21766, 21773, 21777, 21799b, 21799c, 22205,
and 22207 (MCL 333.2501, 333.2640, 333.2701, 333.2723, 333.2882,
333.5131, 333.5456, 333.5474b, 333.5474b[1], 333.5656, 333.5887,
333.7203, 333.7411, 333.7421, 333.9141, 333.9701, 333.10301,
333.12103, 333.16204a, 333.16204d, 333.16241, 333.16281, 333.16315,
333.16625, 333.16807, 333.17015, 333.17020, 333.17520, 333.17745a,
333.17748c, 333.17775, 333.20106, 333.20115, 333.20156, 333.21313,
333.21332, 333.21601, 333.21716, 333.21766, 333.21773, 333.21777,
333.21799b, 333.21799c, 333.22205, and 333.22207), section 2501 as
added by 2006 PA 137, section 2640 as amended and section 16281 as
added by 1998 PA 496, section 2701 as amended by 2014 PA 172,
section 2723 as amended by 2014 PA 173, section 2882 as amended by
2002 PA 691, section 5131 as amended by 2010 PA 119, section 5456
as amended by 2002 PA 644, section 5474b as added by 2004 PA 432,
section 5474b[1] as added by 2004 PA 433, section 5656 as amended
by 2001 PA 237, section 5887 as added by 2014 PA 122, section 7203
as amended by 2012 PA 182, section 7411 as amended by 2013 PA 223,
section 7421 as added by 2014 PA 311, section 9141 as added by 2004
PA 501, section 9701 as added by 2004 PA 250, section 10301 as
added by 2012 PA 179, section 12103 as amended by 2006 PA 260,
section 16204a as amended by 2001 PA 234, section 16204d as amended
by 2001 PA 241, section 16241 as amended and section 17748c as
added by 2014 PA 280, sections 16315 and 17775 as amended by 2013
PA 268, section 16625 as amended by 2005 PA 161, section 16807 as
added by 2004 PA 97, sections 17015 and 20115 as amended by 2012 PA
499, sections 17020 and 17520 as added by 2000 PA 29, section
17745a as amended by 1999 PA 190, section 20106 as amended by 2015
PA 104, section 20156 as amended by 2006 PA 195, section 21313 as
amended by 2012 PA 51, sections 21332 and 21716 as added and
section 21799b as amended by 2000 PA 437, section 21601 as added by
2014 PA 100, section 21766 as amended by 2001 PA 243, section 21773
as amended by 2001 PA 137, section 21777 as amended by 2004 PA 372,
section 21799c as amended by 1996 PA 546, and sections 22205 and
22207 as amended by 2002 PA 619.
THE PEOPLE OF THE STATE OF MICHIGAN ENACT:
Sec. 2501. As used in this part:
(a) "Commission" means the health information technology
commission created under section 2503.
(b)
"Department" means the department of community health and
human services.
Sec. 2640. (1) The department shall give prompt access to the
parentage
registry to the family independence agency or its agent
central paternity registry to any of its agents for the purpose of
the
family independence agency's department's
duty to aid in the
establishment or enforcement of child support obligations. The
family
independence agency department
or its agent may use or
disclose the information from the parentage registry in carrying
out that duty.
(2) Notwithstanding section 2637, if there is a compelling
need for medical records or information to determine whether child
abuse or child neglect has occurred or to take action to protect a
child where there may be a substantial risk of harm, the department
shall
give access to a family independence agency the caseworker
or
administrator directly involved in the investigation to the child's
medical records and information that are pertinent to the child
abuse or child neglect investigation. Medical records or
information disclosed under this section shall include the identity
of the individual to whom the record or information pertains.
(3) The department shall provide the access described by
subsection (2) only upon receipt of a written request from a
caseworker or administrator directly involved in the investigation
and shall provide that access within 14 calendar days after the
record holder receives the written request. The department shall
provide that access regardless of the consent of the person from
whom consent would otherwise be required.
(4) To the extent not protected by the immunity conferred by
1964
PA 170, MCL 691.1401 to 691.1415, 691.1419, an individual who
in good faith provides access to medical records or information
under subsection (2) is immune from civil or administrative
liability arising from that conduct, unless the conduct was gross
negligence or willful and wanton misconduct.
(5) This section does not apply to a report, record, datum, or
information whose confidentiality and disclosure are governed by
section 5131.
Sec. 2701. As used in this part:
(a) "Board certified" means certified to practice in a
particular
medical speciality specialty
by a national board
recognized
by the American board of medical specialties Board of
Medical
Specialties or the American osteopathic
association.Osteopathic Association.
(b) "Certified nurse midwife" means an individual licensed as
a registered professional nurse under part 172 who has been issued
a specialty certification in the practice of nurse midwifery by the
board of nursing under section 17210.
(c) "Certified nurse practitioner" means an individual
licensed as a registered professional nurse under part 172 who has
been issued a specialty certification as a nurse practitioner by
the board of nursing under section 17210.
(d) "Dental school" means an accredited program for the
training of individuals to become dentists.
(e) "Dentist" means an individual licensed to engage in the
practice of dentistry under part 166.
(f) "Designated nurse" means a certified nurse midwife or
certified nurse practitioner.
(g) "Designated physician" means a physician qualified in 1 of
the physician specialty areas identified in section 2711.
(h) "Designated professional" means a designated physician,
designated nurse, dentist, or physician's assistant.
(i) "Health resource shortage area" means a geographic area,
population group, or health facility designated by the department
under section 2717.
(j) "Medicaid" means benefits under the program of medical
assistance established under title XIX of the social security act,
42
USC 1396 to 1396w-5, and administered by the department of human
services
under the social welfare act, 1939
PA 280, MCL 400.1 to
400.119b.
(k) "Medical school" means an accredited program for the
training of individuals to become physicians.
(l) "Medicare" means benefits under the
federal medicare
Medicare program established under title XVIII of the social
security
act, 42 USC 1395 to 1395kkk-1 1395lll.
(m) "National health service corps" means the agency
established under 42 USC 254d.
(n) "Nurse" means an individual licensed to engage in the
practice of nursing under part 172.
(o) "Nursing program" means an accredited program for the
training of individuals to become nurses.
(p) "Physician" means an individual licensed as a physician
under part 170 or an osteopathic physician under part 175.
(q) "Physician's assistant" means an individual licensed as a
physician's assistant under part 170 or part 175.
(r) "Physician's assistant program" means an accredited
program for the training of individuals to become physician's
assistants.
(s) "Service obligation" means the contractual obligation
undertaken by an individual under section 2705 or section 2707 to
provide health care services for a determinable time period at a
site designated by the department.
Sec. 2723. (1) The department may promulgate rules necessary
for the implementation of the department's functions under this
part.
(2) The department shall report biennially to the house and
senate
appropriations subcommittees on the department, of community
health,
the house and senate fiscal
agencies, the governor, the
state health planning council, and the public health advisory
council on the status of the Michigan essential health provider
recruitment strategy for the preceding 2 years. In addition to the
status report, the report shall include, but not be limited to, all
of the following:
(a) Review of state and federal legislation, rules,
guidelines, and policy directives affecting the health personnel of
health resource shortage areas.
(b) Recommendations concerning physician specialty areas or
other health professions for inclusion in the Michigan essential
health provider recruitment strategy based upon a determination of
the need for various types of health care providers in this state.
(c) An assessment of whether the amount of debt or expense
repayment an individual may receive under section 2705(3) is
sufficient to facilitate the placement and retention of designated
professionals in health resource shortage areas, or whether that
maximum amount should be adjusted to reflect changes in tuition
costs for students enrolled in medical schools, dental schools,
nursing programs, or physician's assistant programs.
(d) An analysis of the return on investment and effectiveness
of the grant program under section 2707 and the essential health
provider repayment program under section 2705.
Sec. 2882. (1) Except as otherwise provided in section 2890,
upon written request and payment of the prescribed fee, the state
registrar or local registrar shall issue the appropriate 1 of the
following:
(a) A certified copy of a live birth record, an affidavit of
parentage filed after June 1, 1997, or a record of stillbirth filed
after June 1, 2003 to 1 of the following:
(i) The individual who is the subject of the record.
(ii) A parent named in the record.
(iii) An heir, a legal representative, or a legal guardian of
the individual who is the subject of the record.
(iv) A court of competent jurisdiction.
(b) If the live birth record is 100 or more years old, a
certified copy of the live birth record to any applicant.
(c) A certified copy of a death record, including the cause of
death, to any applicant.
(d) A certified copy of a marriage or divorce record to any
applicant, except as provided by rule.
(e) A certified copy of a fetal death record that was filed
before September 30, 1978, to any applicant.
(2) Upon written request of an adult who has been adopted and
payment of the prescribed fee, the state registrar shall issue to
that individual a copy of his or her original certificate of live
birth, if the written request identifies the name of the adult
adoptee and is accompanied by a copy of a central adoption registry
clearance
reply form that was completed by the family independence
agency
department and delivered to that individual as required by
section 68(9) of the Michigan adoption code, chapter X of the
probate code of 1939, 1939 PA 288, MCL 710.68.
(3) Upon written request of a confidential intermediary
appointed under section 68b of the Michigan adoption code, chapter
X of the probate code of 1939, 1939 PA 288, MCL 710.68b,
presentation of a certified copy of the order of appointment,
identification of the name of the adult adoptee, and payment of the
required fee, the state registrar shall issue to the confidential
intermediary a copy of the original certificate of live birth of
the adult adoptee on whose behalf the intermediary was appointed.
(4) A copy of the original certificate of live birth provided
under subsection (2) or (3) shall have the following phrase marked
on the face of the copy: "This document is a copy of a sealed
record and is not the active birth certificate of the individual
whose name appears on this document".
Sec. 5131. (1) All reports, records, and data pertaining to
testing, care, treatment, reporting, and research, and information
pertaining to partner notification under section 5114a, that are
associated with the serious communicable diseases or infections of
HIV infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome are
confidential. A person shall release reports, records, data, and
information
described in this subsection only pursuant according to
this section.
(2) Except as otherwise provided by law, the test results of a
test for HIV infection or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and
the fact that such a test was ordered is information that is
subject to section 2157 of the revised judicature act of 1961, 1961
PA 236, MCL 600.2157.
(3) The disclosure of information pertaining to HIV infection
or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome in response to a court order
and subpoena is limited to only the following cases and is subject
to all of the following restrictions:
(a) A court that is petitioned for an order to disclose the
information shall determine both of the following:
(i) That other ways of obtaining the information are not
available or would not be effective.
(ii) That the public interest and need for the disclosure
outweigh the potential for injury to the patient.
(b) If a court issues an order for the disclosure of the
information, the order shall do all of the following:
(i) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient's record
that are determined by the court to be essential to fulfill the
objective of the order.
(ii) Limit disclosure to those persons whose need for the
information is the basis for the order.
(iii) Include such other measures as considered
necessary by
the court to limit disclosure for the protection of the patient.
(4) A person who releases information pertaining to HIV
infection or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome to a legislative
body shall not identify in the information a specific individual
who was tested or is being treated for HIV infection or acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome.
(5) Subject to subsection (7), subsection (1) does not apply
to the following:
(a) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the information is disclosed to the department, a
local health department, or other health care provider for 1 or
more of the following purposes:
(i) To protect the health of an individual.
(ii) To prevent further transmission of HIV.
(iii) To diagnose and care for a patient.
(b) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the information is disclosed by a physician or local
health officer to an individual who is known by the physician or
local health officer to be a contact of the individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the physician or local health officer determines that
the disclosure of the information is necessary to prevent a
reasonably foreseeable risk of further transmission of HIV. This
subdivision imposes an affirmative duty upon a physician or local
health officer to disclose information pertaining to an individual
who is HIV infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome to an individual who is known by the
physician or local health officer to be a contact of the individual
who is HIV infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome. A physician or local health officer may
discharge the affirmative duty imposed under this subdivision by
referring the individual who is HIV infected or has been diagnosed
as having acquired immunodeficiency syndrome to the appropriate
local health department for assistance with partner notification
under section 5114a. The physician or local health officer shall
include as part of the referral the name and, if available, address
and telephone number of each individual known by the physician or
local health officer to be a contact of the individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome.
(c) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the information is disclosed by an authorized
representative of the department or by a local health officer to an
employee of a school district, and if the department representative
or local health officer determines that the disclosure is necessary
to prevent a reasonably foreseeable risk of transmission of HIV to
pupils in the school district. An employee of a school district to
whom information is disclosed under this subdivision is subject to
subsection (1).
(d) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the disclosure is expressly authorized in writing by
the individual. This subdivision applies only if the written
authorization is specific to HIV infection or acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome. If the individual is a minor or
incapacitated, the written authorization may be executed by the
parent or legal guardian of the individual.
(e) Information disclosed under section 5114, 5114a, 5119(3),
5129, 5204, or 20191 or information disclosed as required by rule
promulgated under section 5111.
(f) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, if the information is part of a report required under the
child protection law, 1975 PA 238, MCL 722.621 to 722.638.
(g) Information pertaining to an individual who is HIV
infected or has been diagnosed as having acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome,
if the information is disclosed by the department, of
human
services, the probate court, or a
child placing agency in
order to care for a minor and to place the minor with a child care
organization licensed under 1973 PA 116, MCL 722.111 to 722.128.
The person disclosing the information shall disclose it only to the
director of the child care organization or, if the child care
organization is a private home, to the individual who holds the
license for the child care organization. An individual to whom
information is disclosed under this subdivision is subject to
subsection (1). As used in this subdivision, "child care
organization" and "child placing agency" mean those terms as
defined in section 1 of 1973 PA 116, MCL 722.111.
(6) A person who releases the results of an HIV test or other
information described in subsection (1) in compliance with
subsection (5) is immune from civil or criminal liability and
administrative penalties including, but not limited to, licensure
sanctions, for the release of that information.
(7) A person who discloses information under subsection (5)
shall not include in the disclosure information that identifies the
individual to whom the information pertains, unless the identifying
information is determined by the person making the disclosure to be
reasonably necessary to prevent a foreseeable risk of transmission
of HIV. This subsection does not apply to information disclosed
under subsection (5)(d), (f), or (g).
(8) A person who violates this section is guilty of a
misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment for not more than 1 year or
a fine of not more than $5,000.00, or both, and is liable in a
civil action for actual damages or $1,000.00, whichever is greater,
and costs and reasonable attorney fees. This subsection also
applies to the employer of a person who violates this section,
unless the employer had in effect at the time of the violation
reasonable precautions designed to prevent the violation.
Sec.
5456. (1) "Department" means the department of community
health.
(1) (2)
"Deteriorated paint"
means paint or other surface
coating that is cracking, flaking, chipping, peeling, or otherwise
damaged or separating from the substrate of a building component.
(2) (3)
"Discipline" means 1 of
the specific types or
categories of lead-based paint activities identified in this part
for which an individual may receive training from an accredited
training program and become certified by the department.
(3) (4)
"Distinct painting
history" means the application
history, as indicated by its visual appearance or a record of
application, over time of paint or other surface coatings to a
component or room.
(4) (5)
"Documented methodology"
means a method or protocol
used to do either or both of the following:
(a) Sample and test for the presence of lead in paint, dust,
and soil.
(b) Perform related work practices as described in rules
promulgated under this part.
(5) (6)
"Dust lead hazard" means
surface dust in a residential
dwelling
or child occupied child-occupied
facility that contains a
concentration of lead at or in excess of levels identified by the
EPA pursuant to section 403 of title IV of the toxic substances
control
act, Public Law 94-469, 15 U.S.C. USC 2683, or as otherwise
defined by rule.
(6) (7)
"Elevated blood level" or
"EBL" means for purposes of
lead abatement an excessive absorption of lead that is a confirmed
concentration of lead in whole blood of 20 ug/dl, micrograms of
lead per deciliter of whole blood, for a single venous test or of
15-19 ug/dl in 2 consecutive tests taken 3 to 4 months apart. For
purposes of case management of children 6 years of age or less,
elevated blood level means an excessive absorption of lead that is
a confirmed concentration of lead in whole blood of 10 ug/dl.
(7) (8)
"Encapsulant" means a
substance that forms a barrier
between lead-based paint and the environment using a liquid-applied
coating, with or without reinforcement materials, or an adhesively
bonded covering material.
(8) (9)
"Encapsulation" means the
application of an
encapsulant.
(9) (10)
"Enclosure" means the use
of rigid, durable
construction materials that are mechanically fastened to the
substrate in order to act as a barrier between lead-based paint and
the environment.
(10) (11)
"EPA" means the United
States environmental
protection
agency.Environmental
Protection Agency.
Sec.
5474b. (1) The department in cooperation with the family
independence
agency and the Michigan state
housing development
authority shall establish and maintain a registry, to be known as
the "lead safe housing registry", to provide the public with a
listing
of residential and multifamily dwellings and child occupied
child-occupied facilities that have been abated of or have had
interim controls performed to control lead-based paint hazards as
determined through a lead-based paint investigation performed by a
certified risk assessor certified under this part.
(2) The owner of target housing that is offered for rent or
lease
as a residence or the owner of a child occupied child-
occupied facility shall register that property with the department
if that property has been abated of or has had interim controls
performed to control lead-based paint hazards as determined through
a lead-based paint investigation performed by a certified risk
assessor certified under this part in a form as prescribed by the
department free of charge. The form shall include, at a minimum,
the following:
(a) Name of the owner of the building.
(b) Address of the building.
(c) Date of construction.
(d) Date and description of any lead-based paint activity
including the name of the certified abatement worker or the
certified risk assessor certified under this part who performed the
abatement or conducted the inspection, lead-hazard screen,
assessment, or clearance testing of the building and the results of
the lead-based paint activity.
(3) An owner required to register his or her property under
subsection (2) shall provide the department with a copy of each
report, document, or other information that is required to be filed
with the federal government under federal law and regulations
related to lead-based paint.
(4) The owner of any other residential or multifamily dwelling
that is offered for rent or lease as a residence or the owner of a
child
occupied child-occupied facility may register that property
with the department and the department shall include that property
on the lead safe housing registry. A person who wishes to register
under this subsection shall execute and return the registration
form to the department with payment of the registration fee in an
amount as prescribed by the department.
(5) The department shall publish the lead safe housing
registry on its website and provide a copy of the registry to a
person upon request. The department may charge a reasonable, cost-
based fee for providing copies of the lead safe housing registry
under this subsection.
Sec.
5474b[1]. (1) The department in cooperation with the
family
independence agency and the
Michigan state housing
development authority shall establish and maintain a registry, to
be known as the "lead safe housing registry", to provide the public
with
a listing of residential and multifamily dwellings and child
occupied
child-occupied facilities that have been abated of or have
had interim controls performed to control lead-based paint hazards
as determined through a lead-based paint investigation performed by
a certified risk assessor certified under this part.
(2) The owner of target housing that is offered for rent or
lease
as a residence or the owner of a child occupied child-
occupied facility shall register that property with the department
if that property has been abated of or has had interim controls
performed to control lead-based paint hazards as determined through
a lead-based paint investigation performed by a certified risk
assessor certified under this part in a form as prescribed by the
department free of charge. The form shall include, at a minimum,
the following:
(a) Name of the owner of the building.
(b) Address of the building.
(c) Date of construction.
(d) Date and description of any lead-based paint activity
including the name of the certified abatement worker or the
certified risk assessor certified under this part who performed the
abatement or conducted the inspection, lead-hazard screen,
assessment, or clearance testing of the building and the results of
the lead-based paint activity.
(3) An owner required to register his or her property under
subsection (2) shall provide the department with a copy of each
report, document, or other information that is required to be filed
with the federal government under federal law and regulations
related to lead-based paint.
(4) The owner of any other residential or multifamily dwelling
that is offered for rent or lease as a residence or the owner of a
child
occupied child-occupied facility may register that property
with the department and the department shall include that property
on the lead safe housing registry. A person who wishes to register
under this subsection shall execute and return the registration
form to the department with payment of the registration fee in an
amount as prescribed by the department.
(5) The department shall publish the lead safe housing
registry on its website and provide a copy of the registry to a
person upon request. The department may charge a reasonable, cost-
based fee for providing copies of the lead safe housing registry
under this subsection.
Sec.
5656. (1) By July 1, 2002, the The
department of
community
health shall develop and publish an
updated standardized,
written summary that contains all of the information required under
section 5655.
(2) The department shall develop the updated standardized,
written summary in consultation with appropriate professional and
other organizations. The department shall draft the summary in
nontechnical terms that a patient, patient surrogate, or patient
advocate can easily understand.
(3) The department shall make the updated standardized,
written summary described in subsection (1) available to physicians
through the Michigan board of medicine and the Michigan board of
osteopathic medicine and surgery created in article 15. The
Michigan board of medicine and the Michigan board of osteopathic
medicine and surgery shall notify in writing each physician subject
to this part of the requirements of this part and the availability
of the updated standardized, written summary within 10 days after
the updated standardized, written summary is published.
Sec.
5887. The department and the department of human services
shall
collaborate to do all of the following:
(a) Work to improve community-based services available to
inform parents regarding the risk factors associated with infant
death due to unsafe sleep practices and infant safe sleep
practices.
(b) Work with other state and local governmental agencies,
community organizations, health care and human service providers,
and national organizations to coordinate efforts and maximize state
and private resources in education regarding the risk factors
associated with infant death due to unsafe sleep practices and
infant safe sleep practices.
(c) Provide educational and instructional materials that
explain the risk factors associated with infant death due to unsafe
sleep practices, that include methods to reduce the risk of infant
death due to unsafe sleep, and that emphasize infant safe sleep
practices.
Sec. 7203. (1) After considering the factors enumerated in
section 7202(1), the administrator shall make findings with respect
to those factors and promulgate a rule controlling the substance if
the administrator finds the substance has a potential for abuse.
(2) If the administrator is notified in writing by the
director
of the department of community health under section 2251
that a substance constitutes an imminent danger as defined in that
section, the administrator shall consider the factors enumerated in
section 7202(1) and (2) and make findings with respect to those
factors and may do either or both of the following:
(a) Proceed under section 48(2) of the administrative
procedures
act of 1969, 1969 PA 306, MCL 28.248, 24.248, to
schedule or reschedule the substance as a controlled substance by
emergency rule.
(b) Initiate and pursue the process to promulgate a rule
controlling the substance.
(3) The administrator may extend an emergency rule processed
under subsection (2)(a) by filing a certificate of extension with
the office of secretary of state before the expiration of the
emergency rule as provided in section 48(2) of the administrative
procedures act of 1969, MCL 24.248.
(4) If the administrator designates a substance as an
immediate precursor, a substance that is a precursor of the
controlled precursor is not subject to control solely because it is
a precursor of the controlled precursor.
Sec. 7411. (1) When an individual who has not previously been
convicted of an offense under this article or under any statute of
the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, coca
leaves, marihuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic
drugs, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of a
controlled substance under section 7403(2)(a)(v), 7403(2)(b), (c),
or (d), or of use of a controlled substance under section 7404, or
possession or use of an imitation controlled substance under
section 7341 for a second time, the court, without entering a
judgment of guilt with the consent of the accused, may defer
further proceedings and place the individual on probation upon
terms and conditions that shall include, but are not limited to,
payment of a probation supervision fee as prescribed in section 3c
of chapter XI of the code of criminal procedure, 1927 PA 175, MCL
771.3c. The terms and conditions of probation may include
participation in a drug treatment court under chapter 10A of the
revised judicature act of 1961, 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.1060 to
600.1084. Upon violation of a term or condition, the court may
enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.
Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions, the court shall
discharge the individual and dismiss the proceedings. Discharge and
dismissal under this section shall be without adjudication of guilt
and, except as otherwise provided by law, is not a conviction for
purposes of this section or for purposes of disqualifications or
disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime, including
the additional penalties imposed for second or subsequent
convictions under section 7413. There may be only 1 discharge and
dismissal under this section as to an individual.
(2) All court proceedings under this section shall be open to
the public. Except as provided in subsection (3), if the record of
proceedings as to the defendant is deferred under this section, the
record of proceedings during the period of deferral shall be closed
to public inspection.
(3) Unless the court enters a judgment of guilt under this
section, the department of state police shall retain a nonpublic
record of the arrest, court proceedings, and disposition of the
criminal
charge under this section. However, the The nonpublic
record shall be open to the following individuals and entities for
the purposes noted:
(a) The courts of this state, law enforcement personnel, the
department of corrections, and prosecuting attorneys for use only
in the performance of their duties or to determine whether an
employee of the court, law enforcement agency, department of
corrections, or prosecutor's office has violated his or her
conditions of employment or whether an applicant meets criteria for
employment with the court, law enforcement agency, department of
corrections, or prosecutor's office.
(b) The courts of this state, law enforcement personnel, and
prosecuting attorneys for the purpose of showing either of the
following:
(i) That a defendant has already once availed himself or
herself of this section.
(ii) Determining whether the defendant in a criminal action is
eligible for discharge and dismissal of proceedings by a drug
treatment court under section 1076(5) of the revised judicature act
of 1961, 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.1076.
(c)
The department of human services for enforcing child
protection laws and vulnerable adult protection laws or
ascertaining the preemployment criminal history of any individual
who will be engaged in the enforcement of child protection laws or
vulnerable adult protection laws.
(4) For purposes of this section, a person subjected to a
civil fine for a first violation of section 7341(4) shall not be
considered to have previously been convicted of an offense under
this article.
(5) Except as provided in subsection (6), if an individual is
convicted of a violation of this article, other than a violation of
section 7401(2)(a)(i) to (iv) or section 7403(2)(a)(i) to (iv), the
court as part of the sentence, during the period of confinement or
the period of probation, or both, may require the individual to
attend a course of instruction or rehabilitation program approved
by the department on the medical, psychological, and social effects
of the misuse of drugs. The court may order the individual to pay a
fee, as approved by the director, for the instruction or program.
Failure to complete the instruction or program shall be considered
a violation of the terms of probation.
(6) If an individual is convicted of a second violation of
section 7341(4), before imposing sentence under subsection (1), the
court shall order the person to undergo screening and assessment by
a
person or agency designated by the office of substance abuse
services,
recovery oriented systems of
care to determine whether
the person is likely to benefit from rehabilitative services,
including alcohol or drug education and alcohol or drug treatment
programs. As part of the sentence imposed under subsection (1), the
court may order the person to participate in and successfully
complete 1 or more appropriate rehabilitative programs. The person
shall pay for the costs of the screening, assessment, and
rehabilitative services. Failure to complete a program shall be
considered a violation of the terms of the probation.
Sec.
7421. By February 1 each year, the department of
community
health shall ascertain, document,
and publish a report on
the number, trends, patterns, and risk factors related to opioid-
related overdose fatalities that occurred in this state in the
preceding calendar year. The department shall include in the report
information on interventions that would be effective in reducing
the rate of fatal or nonfatal opioid-related overdoses in this
state.
Sec. 9141. (1) The department shall establish and administer a
grant program to provide grants for the purchase of ultrasound
equipment. The department shall use the grant program to make
grants to qualified entities that apply for a grant and that do not
have at least 2 ultrasound machines.
(2) The ultrasound equipment fund is created within the state
treasury. The state treasurer may receive money or other assets
from any source for deposit into the fund including, but not
limited to, state revenues, federal money, gifts, bequests,
donations, and money from any other source provided by law. The
state treasurer shall direct the investment of the fund. The state
treasurer shall credit to the fund interest and earnings from fund
investments. Money in the fund at the close of the fiscal year
shall remain in the fund and shall not lapse to the general fund.
(3) The department shall use the fund to make grants as
provided under subsection (1) for the purchase of ultrasound
equipment and to cover the administrative costs of the department
and the department of treasury in implementing and administering
this grant program. An application for a grant under the grant
program shall be made on a form or format prescribed by the
department. The department may require the applicant to provide
information reasonably necessary to allow the department to make a
determination required under this section. In making its
determination, the department shall give priority to those
applicants that do not have an ultrasound machine or that have only
1 ultrasound machine that is outdated based on industry standards.
The
director of the department shall have has final approval of
grants made under this section and the grants shall only be
approved if the money is available in the fund.
(4) A cash match of at least 50% of the grant or other
repayment guarantee with a dedicated funding source is required
before a grant can be awarded.
(5) The department shall not make a grant to a qualified
entity for the purchase of ultrasound equipment unless the
following conditions are met:
(a) The entity provides family planning or reproductive health
services to low-income women at no cost or at a reduced cost.
(b) The entity agrees to comply with each of the following:
(i) Shall have at least 1 ultrasound monitor that is fully
accessible to the pregnant woman to view during the performance of
her ultrasound.
(ii) Inform each pregnant woman upon whom the ultrasound
equipment is used that she has the right to view the ultrasound
image.
(iii) If the ultrasound equipment is capable, inform each
pregnant woman upon whom the ultrasound equipment is used that she
has the right to record the ultrasound image for her own records if
she provides the entity with the videocassette, film, or other
medium now known or later developed on which images can be recorded
or otherwise stored.
(iv) Certify in writing that the woman was offered an
opportunity to view the ultrasound image, obtain the woman's
acceptance or rejection to view the image in writing, and maintain
a copy of each in the woman's medical file.
(v) Shall not use the ultrasound equipment to assist in the
performance of an elective abortion.
(vi) Shall have a trained medical professional or a qualified
medical director on staff to perform the ultrasound.
(6) The department shall annually prepare a report summarizing
the grants made under this section, contractual commitments made
and achieved, and a preliminary evaluation of the effectiveness of
this section and shall provide a copy of this report to the chairs
of the house and senate appropriations subcommittees for the
department. of
community health.
(7) The department may promulgate rules under the
administrative procedures act of 1969 to implement this grant
program.
(8) As used in this section:
(a)
"Department" means the department of community health.
(a) (b)
"Elective abortion" means
the performance of a
procedure involving the intentional use of an instrument, drug, or
other substance or device to terminate a woman's pregnancy for a
purpose other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to
preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to
remove a dead fetus. Elective abortion does not include either of
the following:
(i) The use or prescription of a drug or device intended as a
contraceptive.
(ii) The intentional use of an instrument, drug, or other
substance or device by a physician to terminate a woman's pregnancy
if the woman's physical condition, in the physician's reasonable
medical judgment, necessitates the termination of the woman's
pregnancy to avert her death.
(b) (c)
"Entity" means a local
agency, organization, or
corporation or a subdivision, contractee, subcontractee, or grant
recipient of a local agency, organization, or corporation.
(c) (d)
"Fund" means the
ultrasound equipment fund created
under subsection (2).
(d) (e)
"Qualified entity" means
an entity reviewed and
determined
by the department of community health to satisfy all of
the conditions required under subsection (5) and to be technically
and logistically capable of providing the quality and quantity of
services required within a cost range considered appropriate by the
department.
Sec. 9701. As used in this part:
(a) "Committee" means the Michigan pharmacy and therapeutics
committee established by Executive Order No. 2001-8 and by section
9705.
(b) "Controlled substance" means that term as defined in
section 7104.
(c)
"Department" means the department of community health.
(c) (d)
"Drug" means that term as
defined in section 17703.
(d) (e)
"Initiative" means the
pharmaceutical best practices
initiative established by this part.
(e) (f)
"Medicaid" means the
program of medical assistance
established under title XIX of the social security act, 42 USC 1396
to
1396v.1396w-5.
(f) (g)
"Pharmacist" means an
individual licensed by this
state to engage in the practice of pharmacy under article 15.
(g) (h)
"Physician" means an
individual licensed by this state
to engage in the practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine and
surgery under article 15.
(h) (i)
"Prescriber" means a
licensed dentist, a licensed
doctor of medicine, a licensed doctor of osteopathic medicine and
surgery, a licensed doctor of podiatric medicine and surgery, a
licensed optometrist certified under part 174 to administer and
prescribe therapeutic pharmaceutical agents, or another licensed
health professional acting under the delegation and using,
recording, or otherwise indicating the name of the delegating
licensed doctor of medicine or licensed doctor of osteopathic
medicine and surgery.
(i) (j)
"Prescription" means that
term as defined in section
17708.
(j) (k)
"Prescription drug" means
that term as defined in
section 17708.
(k) (l) "Type
II transfer" means that term as defined in
section 3 of the executive organization act of 1965, 1965 PA 380,
MCL 16.103.
Sec. 10301. (1) The department may create, operate, and
maintain the peace of mind registry, which shall contain the
directives of voluntary registrants who are residents of this
state. The peace of mind registry shall be created, operated, and
maintained as provided in this act.
(2) The department may by contract delegate the creation,
operation, and maintenance of a peace of mind registry to a peace
of mind registry organization contingent upon the peace of mind
registry organization incurring all of the cost related to design,
maintain, and operate the registry.
(3) Both of the following conditions apply to a directive:
(a) A directive may be submittable through the United States
mail, or through uploaded portable document format (PDF) or another
secure electronic format as determined by the department.
(b) A directive shall contain a signature line for the
registrant.
(4) The peace of mind registry shall meet all of the following
requirements:
(a) Be accessible to registrants, health care providers, and
the department by way of a designated user identification and
password.
(b)
Store all an individual's directive. However, the The most
recently signed directive supersedes any earlier directive.
(c) Provide electronic access to stored directives on a
continuous basis at no cost to the health care providers and allow
health care providers to transmit directives into their respective
electronic medical records.
(d) Provide electronic storage and access to directives
submitted at no cost to the registrant.
(e) Include a unique identifier-searchable database,
including, but not limited to, the last 4 digits of an individual's
social security number and the individual's date of birth and
address.
(5)
The department , and the secretary of state , and the
department
of human services shall each
provide on its public
website information on directives and the peace of mind registry.
The
department , and
the secretary of state ,
and the department of
human
services shall promote public
awareness of the advantages of
creating directives and the availability of the registry.
(6) The peace of mind registry shall satisfy all of the
following conditions to the satisfaction of the department:
(a) Maintain a record of each individual who files a directive
to be stored in the peace of mind registry and make the record
available to the department.
(b) Create and provide forms for the registration of a
directive.
(c) Create and provide forms for the revocation of a
directive.
(7) The department and the peace of mind registry organization
shall ensure the privacy and security of all documents and
information submitted to, transmitted from, or stored in the peace
of mind registry. The department and any person who accesses the
peace of mind registry shall comply with all other provisions of
this act and any other law of this state or federal law
establishing privacy and security standards applicable to health or
other personal identifying information.
(8) Information in the peace of mind registry shall not be
accessed or used for any purpose unrelated to decision making for
health care or disposition of human remains, except that the
information may be used solely by the department or its designee
for statistical or analytical purposes if the individual's identity
is not revealed and all personal identifying information remains
confidential.
(9) The department or its designee shall provide both of the
following to an individual who files a directive with the peace of
mind registry to be stored in the registry:
(a) A wallet-sized card indicating that the holder has a
directive in the registry.
(b) An electronic mail message or postcard indicating
confirmation of the registration of a directive.
(10) By January 31 of each year, the department or peace of
mind organization, as applicable, shall report to the standing
committees of the house of representatives and senate on health
policy stating the total number of current and new registrants who
have submitted directives during the preceding calendar year.
(11) The department may promulgate rules under the
administrative
procedures act of 1969 , 1969 PA 306, MCL 24.201 to
24.328,
to provide for the implementation
and administration of
this section.
(12) A peace of mind registry organization, with which the
department has contracted under subsection (2), and its employees
are immune from civil liability arising from the accuracy or
content of the registry, except in the case of willful negligence
or gross negligence.
(13) A directive that was filed with and stored in the peace
of mind registry shall not be considered to be of greater legal
weight or validity solely by virtue of that filing and storage.
(14) As used in this section:
(a)
"Department" means the department of community health.
(a) (b)
"Directive" means a
document that is registered or
filed with the peace of mind registry as provided in this act and
that is either of the following:
(i) A durable power of attorney and designation of patient
advocate under part 5 of article V of the estates and protected
individuals code, 1998 PA 386, MCL 700.5501 to 700.5520.
(ii) A signed or authorized record concerning an anatomical
gift containing a donor's direction concerning a health care
decision for the donor under the revised uniform anatomical gift
law, sections 10101 to 10123.
(b) (c)
"Health care provider"
means any of the following:
(i) A health professional licensed, registered, or otherwise
authorized to engage in a health profession under part 170, 172, or
175, or a law of another state substantially similar to part 170,
172, or 175.
(ii) A health facility or agency licensed or certified under
article 17 or a law of another state substantially similar to
article 17.
(c) (d)
"Peace of mind registry"
or "registry" means an
internet website containing access to directives as provided under
this act.
(d) (e)
"Peace of mind registry
organization" means an
organization certified or recertified by the secretary of the
United
States department of health and human services Department of
Health and Human Services as a qualified organ procurement
organization under 42 USC 273(b), or its successor organization.
(e) (f)
"Sign" means that, with
the present intent to
authenticate or adopt a record, an individual does either of the
following:
(i) Executes or adopts a tangible symbol.
(ii) Attaches to or logically associates with the record an
electronic symbol, sound, or process.
Sec. 12103. (1) The department of environmental quality shall
serve as the environmental health agency for this state to
facilitate a uniform approach to environmental health by the
various public and private entities involved in that field and
shall:
(a) Advise the governor, boards, commissions, and state
agencies on matters of the environment as those matters affect the
health of the people of this state.
(b) Cooperate with and provide environmental health resource
support to state and local health planning agencies and other
state, district, and local agencies mandated by law or otherwise
designated to develop, maintain, or administer state and local
health programs and plans, and other public and private entities
involved in environmental health activities.
(c) Develop and maintain the capability to monitor and
evaluate conditions which represent potential and actual
environmental health hazards, reporting its findings to appropriate
state departments and local jurisdictions, and to the public as
necessary.
(d) Provide an environmental health policy for the state and
an environmental health services plan to include environmental
health activities of local health jurisdictions.
(e) Serve as the central repository and clearinghouse for the
collection, evaluation, and dissemination of data and information
on environmental health hazards, programs, and practices.
(2)
Within 6 months after the effective date of the amendatory
act
that added this subsection, the The
department, of
community
health,
in consultation with the department
of environmental
quality, shall develop a cleanup of clandestine drug labs guidance
document that includes, but is not limited to, detailed protocols
for the preliminary site assessment, remediation, and post-cleanup
assessment of indoor environments and structures and cleanup
criteria based on human health risk that is similar to the cleanup
criteria derived under section 20120a of the natural resources and
environmental protection act, 1994 PA 451, MCL 324.20120a, and
shall promulgate rules and procedures necessary to implement
subsection
(3). The department of community health shall make the
guidance document available to the public on its website and, upon
request from a local health department, shall provide that local
health department with a physical copy of the guidance document.
(3) Within 48 hours of discovering an illegal drug
manufacturing site, a state or local law enforcement agency shall
notify
the local health department and the department of community
health
regarding the potential
contamination of any property or
dwelling that is or has been the site of illegal drug
manufacturing. The state or local law enforcement agency shall post
a written warning on the premises stating that potential
contamination exists and may constitute a hazard to the health or
safety of those who may occupy the premises. Within 14 days after
receipt of the notification under this subsection or as soon
thereafter
as practically possible, the department, of community
health,
in cooperation with the local
health department, shall
review the information received from the state or local law
enforcement agency, emergency first responders, or hazardous
materials team that was called to the site and make a determination
regarding whether the premises are likely to be contaminated and
whether that contamination may constitute a hazard to the health or
safety of those who may occupy the premises. The fact that property
or a dwelling has been used as a site for illegal drug
manufacturing
shall be treated by the department of community
health
as prima facie evidence of likely
contamination that may
constitute a hazard to the health or safety of those who may occupy
those premises. If the property or dwelling, or both, is determined
likely to be contaminated under this subsection, the local health
department
or the department of community health shall issue an
order requiring the property or dwelling to be vacated until the
property owner establishes that the property is decontaminated or
the risk of likely contamination ceases to exist. The property
owner may establish that the property is decontaminated by
submitting a written assessment of the property before
decontamination and a written assessment of the property after
decontamination, enumerating the steps taken to render the property
decontaminated, and a certification that the property has been
decontaminated and that the risk of likely contamination no longer
exists to the enforcing agency. The property or dwelling shall
remain vacated until the enforcing agency has reviewed and
concurred in the certification. As used in this subsection,
"dwelling" means any house, building, structure, tent, shelter,
trailer or vehicle, or portion thereof, except railroad cars on
tracks
or rights-of-way, which that
is occupied in whole or in part
as the home, residence, living, or sleeping place of 1 or more
human beings, either permanently or transiently.
Sec. 16204a. (1) Subject to subsection (2), an advisory
committee on pain and symptom management is created in the
department. The committee consists of the following members
appointed in the following manner:
(a) The Michigan board of medicine created in part 170 and the
Michigan board of osteopathic medicine and surgery created in part
175 each shall appoint 2 members, 1 of whom is a physician
specializing in primary care and 1 of whom is a physician certified
in the specialty of pain medicine by 1 or more national
professional
organizations approved by the department, of consumer
and
industry services, including, but
not limited to, the American
board
of medical specialists Board
of Medical Specialists or the
American
board of pain medicine.Board
of Pain Medicine.
(b) One psychologist who is associated with the education and
training of psychology students, appointed by the Michigan board of
psychology created in part 182.
(c) One individual appointed by the governor who is
representative of the general public.
(d) One registered professional nurse with training in pain
and symptom management who is associated with the education and
training of nursing students, appointed by the Michigan board of
nursing created in part 172.
(e) One dentist with training in pain and symptom management
who is associated with the education and training of dental
students, appointed by the Michigan board of dentistry created in
part 166.
(f) One pharmacist with training in pain and symptom
management who is associated with the education and training of
pharmacy students appointed by the Michigan board of pharmacy
created in part 177.
(g) One individual appointed by the governor who represents
the
Michigan hospice organization Hospice
Organization or its
successor.
(h) One representative from each of the state's medical
schools, appointed by the governor.
(i) One individual appointed by the governor who has been
diagnosed as a chronic pain sufferer.
(j) One physician's assistant with training in pain and
symptom management appointed by the Michigan task force on
physician's assistants.
(k)
The director of the department of consumer and industry
services
or his or her designee, who shall
serve as chairperson.
(l) The director of the department of community health
and
human services or his or her designee.
(2) Advisory committee members appointed under subsection
(1)(a)
through to (j) shall receive per diem compensation as
established by the legislature and shall be reimbursed for expenses
under section 1216.
(3)
The advisory committee members appointed under subsection
(1)(a)
through (j) shall be appointed by May 15, 1999. A member of
the advisory committee shall serve for a term of 2 years or until a
successor is appointed, whichever is later. A vacancy on the
advisory committee shall be filled in the same manner as the
original appointment.
(4) The advisory committee shall do all of the following, as
necessary:
(a) At least once annually consult with all of the following
boards to develop an integrated approach to understanding and
applying pain and symptom management techniques:
(i) All licensure boards created under this article, except
the Michigan board of veterinary medicine.
(ii) The Michigan board of social work created in section
18505.
(b) Hold a public hearing in the same manner as provided for a
public hearing held under the administrative procedures act of
1969, within 90 days after the members of the advisory committee
are appointed under subsection (1) to gather information from the
general public on issues pertaining to pain and symptom management.
(c) Develop and encourage the implementation of model core
curricula on pain and symptom management.
(d) Develop recommendations to the licensing and registration
boards and the task force created under this article on integrating
pain and symptom management into the customary practice of health
care professionals and identifying the role and responsibilities of
the various health care professionals in pain and symptom
management.
(e) Advise the licensing and registration boards created under
this article on the duration and content of continuing education
requirements for pain and symptom management.
(f) Annually report on the activities of the advisory
committee and make recommendations on the following issues to the
director
of the department of consumer and industry services and to
the
director of the department of community health and human
services:
(i) Pain management educational curricula and continuing
educational requirements of institutions providing health care
education.
(ii) Information about the impact and effectiveness of
previous recommendations, if any, that have been implemented,
including, but not limited to, recommendations made under
subdivision (d).
(iii) Activities undertaken by the advisory committee in
complying with the duties imposed under subdivisions (c) and (d).
(g)
Beginning in January of 2000, annually Annually review any
changes occurring in pain and symptom management.
(5) In making recommendations and developing written materials
under subsection (4), the advisory committee shall review
guidelines on pain and symptom management issued by the United
States
department of health and human services.Department of Health
and Human Services.
Sec.
16204d. (1) The department, of consumer and industry
services,
in consultation with the department
of community health
and human services, shall develop, publish, and distribute an
informational
booklet on pain. The department of consumer and
industry
services shall include at least all
of the following in
the informational booklet:
(a) Pain management educational curricula and continuing
educational requirements of institutions providing health care
education recommended by the advisory committee on pain and symptom
management under section 16204a.
(b) Other information considered relevant or useful by the
department. of
consumer and industry services.
(2)
The department, of consumer and industry services, in
conjunction with the controlled substances advisory commission
created in article 7, shall develop and conduct an educational
program for health professionals who are licensed under part 73 to
prescribe or dispense, or both, controlled substances. The
department
of consumer and industry services shall include, at a
minimum, all of the following in the educational program:
(a)
Information on how the department of consumer and industry
services
processes allegations of wrongdoing
against licensees
under this article and article 17, including, but not limited to,
how the permanent historical record is maintained for each
licensee, how and why a review of the permanent historical record
is done, and how the decision is made to issue a formal complaint
against a licensee.
(b) Information on the disciplinary process, including a
licensee's rights and duties if an allegation of wrongdoing is
filed against the licensee or if some other circumstance occurs
that
causes or requires the department of consumer and industry
services
to review a licensee's permanent
historical record.
(c) Other information considered relevant or useful by the
department
of consumer and industry services or the controlled
substances advisory commission, especially information that would
address the findings and statements of intent contained in section
16204c.
Sec. 16241. (1) After administrative disciplinary action is
final, the department shall publish a list of the names and
addresses of disciplined individuals. The department shall indicate
on the list that a final administrative disciplinary action is
subject to judicial review. The department shall report
disciplinary
action to the department of community health and human
services, the department of insurance and financial services, the
state and federal agencies responsible for fiscal administration of
federal health care programs, and the appropriate professional
association.
(2) Once each calendar year, the department shall transmit to
the library of Michigan sufficient copies of a compilation of the
lists required under subsection (1) for the immediately preceding 3
calendar years. The library of Michigan shall distribute the
compilation to each depository library in this state. The
department shall also transmit the compilation to each county clerk
in this state once each calendar year.
(3)
The department of community health and human services
shall report the disciplinary actions to appropriate licensed
health facilities and agencies. The department of insurance and
financial services shall report the disciplinary actions received
from the department to insurance carriers providing professional
liability insurance.
(4) In case of a summary suspension of a license under section
16233(5), the department shall report the name and address of the
individual whose license has been suspended to the department of
community
health and human services, the department of insurance
and financial services, the state and federal agencies responsible
for fiscal administration of federal health care programs, and the
appropriate professional association. In case of a summary
suspension of a license under section 16233(6), the department
shall report the name and address of the pharmacy license that has
been
suspended to the department of community health and human
services, the department of insurance and financial services, the
state and federal agencies responsible for fiscal administration of
federal health care programs, and the appropriate professional
association.
(5) A licensee or registrant whose license or registration is
revoked or suspended under this article shall give notice of the
revocation or suspension to each patient who contacts the licensee
or registrant for professional services during the term of the
revocation or suspension. The licensee or registrant may give the
notice required under this subsection orally and shall give the
notice required under this subsection at the time of contact.
(6) A licensee or registrant whose license or registration is
revoked or is suspended for more than 60 days under this article
shall notify in writing each patient or client to whom the licensee
or registrant rendered professional services in the licensee's or
registrant's private practice during the 120 days immediately
preceding the date of the final order imposing the revocation or
suspension and to each individual who is already scheduled for
professional services during the first 120 days after the date of
the final order imposing the revocation or suspension. The notice
must be on a form provided by the licensee's or registrant's board
or task force and state, at a minimum, the name, address, and
license or registration number of the licensee or registrant, the
fact that his or her license or registration has been revoked or
suspended, the effective date of the revocation or suspension, and
the term of the revocation or suspension. Each board or task force
shall develop a notice form that meets at least the minimum
requirements of this subsection. The licensee or registrant shall
send the notice to each patient or client to whom the licensee or
registrant rendered professional services in the licensee's or
registrant's private practice during the 120 days immediately
preceding the date of the final order imposing the revocation or
suspension within 30 days after the date of the final order
imposing the revocation or suspension and shall simultaneously
transmit a copy of the notice to the department. The licensee or
registrant orally shall notify each individual who contacts the
licensee or registrant for professional services during the first
120 days after the date of the final order imposing the revocation
or suspension. The licensee or registrant shall also provide a copy
of the notice within 10 days after the date of the final order
imposing the revocation or suspension to his or her employer, if
any, and to each hospital, if any, in which the licensee or
registrant is admitted to practice.
(7) A licensee or registrant who is reprimanded, fined, placed
on probation, or ordered to pay restitution under this article or
an applicant whose application for licensure or registration is
denied under this article shall notify his or her employer, if any,
and each hospital, if any, in which he or she is admitted to
practice, in the same manner as provided for notice of revocation
or suspension to an employer or hospital under subsection (6),
within 10 days after the date of the final order imposing the
sanction.
(8) The department shall annually report to the legislature
and to each board and task force on disciplinary actions taken
under this article, article 7, and article 8. The department shall
include, at a minimum, all of the following information in the
report required under this subsection:
(a) Investigations conducted, complaints issued, and
settlements reached by the department, separated out by type of
complaint and health profession.
(b) Investigations and complaints closed or dismissed.
(c) Actions taken by each disciplinary subcommittee, separated
out by type of complaint, health profession, and final order
issued.
(d) Recommendations by boards and task forces.
(e) The number of extensions and delays granted by the
department that were in excess of the time limits required under
this article for each phase of the disciplinary process, and the
types of cases for which the extensions and delays were granted.
Sec. 16281. (1) If there is a compelling need for records or
information to determine whether child abuse or child neglect has
occurred or to take action to protect a child where there may be a
substantial
risk of harm, a family independence agency department
of health and human services caseworker or administrator directly
involved in the child abuse or child neglect investigation shall
notify a licensee or registrant that a child abuse or child neglect
investigation has been initiated regarding a child who has received
services from the licensee or registrant and shall request in
writing the child's medical records and information that are
pertinent to that investigation. Upon receipt of this notification
and request, the licensee or registrant shall review all of the
child's medical records and information in the licensee's or
registrant's possession to determine if there are medical records
or information that is pertinent to that investigation. Within 14
days after receipt of a request made under this subsection, the
licensee or registrant shall release those pertinent medical
records and information to the department of health and human
services caseworker or administrator directly involved in the child
abuse or child neglect investigation.
(2) The following privileges do not apply to medical records
or information released or made available under subsection (1):
(a) The physician-patient privilege created in section 2157 of
the revised judicature act of 1961, 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.2157.
(b) The dentist-patient privilege created in section 16648.
(c) The licensed professional counselor-client and limited
licensed counselor-client privilege created in section 18117.
(d) The psychologist-patient privilege created in section
18237.
(e) Any other health professional-patient privilege created or
recognized by law.
(3) To the extent not protected by the immunity conferred by
1964 PA 170, MCL 691.1401 to 691.1415, an individual who in good
faith provides access to medical records or information under this
section is immune from civil or administrative liability arising
from that conduct, unless the conduct was gross negligence or
willful and wanton misconduct.
(4) This section does not apply to a report, record, datum, or
information whose confidentiality and disclosure are governed by
section 5131.
(5) A duty under this act relating to child abuse and child
neglect does not alter a duty imposed under another statute,
including the child protection law, 1975 PA 238, MCL 722.621 to
722.638, regarding the reporting or investigation of child abuse or
child neglect.
Sec. 16315. (1) The health professions regulatory fund is
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in
this section, the state treasurer shall credit the fees collected
under sections 16319 to 16349 to the health professions regulatory
fund. The money in the health professions regulatory fund shall be
expended only as provided in subsection (5).
(2) The state treasurer shall direct the investment of the
health professions regulatory fund. Interest and earnings from
health professions regulatory fund investment shall be credited to
the health professions regulatory fund.
(3) The unencumbered balance in the health professions
regulatory fund at the close of the fiscal year shall remain in the
health professions regulatory fund and shall not revert to the
general fund.
(4) The health professions regulatory fund may receive gifts
and devises and other money as provided by law.
(5) The department shall use the health professions regulatory
fund to carry out its powers and duties under this article, article
7, and article 8, including, but not limited to, reimbursing the
department of attorney general for the reasonable cost of services
provided to the department under this article, article 7, and
article 8.
(6) The nurse professional fund is established in the state
treasury. Of the money that is attributable to per-year license
fees collected under section 16327, the state treasurer shall
credit $8.00 of each individual annual license fee collected to the
nurse professional fund. The money in the nurse professional fund
shall be expended only as provided in subsection (9).
(7) The state treasurer shall direct the investment of the
nurse professional fund, and shall credit interest and earnings
from the investment to the nurse professional fund. The nurse
professional fund may receive gifts and devises and other money as
provided by law.
(8) The unencumbered balance in the nurse professional fund at
the close of the fiscal year shall remain in the nurse professional
fund and shall not revert to the general fund.
(9)
The department of community health and human services
shall use the nurse professional fund each fiscal year only as
follows:
(a) To promote safe patient care in all nursing practice
environments.
(b) To advance the safe practice of the nursing profession.
(c)
To assure ensure a continuous supply of high-quality
direct care nurses, nursing faculty, and nursing education
programs.
(d) To operate a nursing scholarship program.
(10) The pain management education and controlled substances
electronic monitoring and antidiversion fund is established in the
state treasury.
(11) The state treasurer shall direct the investment of the
pain management education and controlled substances electronic
monitoring and antidiversion fund. Interest and earnings from
investment of the pain management education and controlled
substances electronic monitoring and antidiversion fund shall be
credited to the pain management education and controlled substances
electronic monitoring and antidiversion fund.
(12) The unencumbered balance in the pain management education
and controlled substances electronic monitoring and antidiversion
fund at the close of the fiscal year shall remain in the pain
management education and controlled substances electronic
monitoring and antidiversion fund and shall not revert to the
general fund. The pain management education and controlled
substances electronic monitoring and antidiversion fund may receive
gifts and devises and other money as provided by law. Twenty
dollars of the license fee received by the department under section
16319 shall be deposited with the state treasurer to the credit of
the pain management education and controlled substances electronic
monitoring and antidiversion fund. The department shall use the
pain management education and controlled substances electronic
monitoring and antidiversion fund only in connection with programs
relating to pain management education for health professionals,
preventing the diversion of controlled substances, and development
and maintenance of the electronic monitoring system for controlled
substances data required by section 7333a.
Sec. 16625. (1) The board may promulgate rules to prohibit or
otherwise restrict the assignment of procedures to a dental
hygienist or a dental assistant if the board determines that the
assignment constitutes or may constitute a danger to the health,
safety, or welfare of the patient or the public.
(2) Notwithstanding section 16601(1)(f) or the rules
promulgated under subsection (1), a dental hygienist may perform
dental hygiene services under the supervision of a dentist as part
of a program for dentally underserved populations in this state
conducted by a local, state, or federal grantee health agency for
patients who are not assigned by a dentist. The director of
community
the department of health
and human services shall
designate a person as a grantee health agency for a 2-year period
if
the person applies to the department of community health and
human
services on a form provided by the
department of community
health and human services and meets all of the following
requirements:
(a) Is a public or nonprofit entity, or a school or nursing
home, that administers a program of dental care to a dentally
underserved population.
(b) Employs or contracts with at least 1 dentist or 1 dental
hygienist.
(c) Submits a program overview indicating the approximate
population to be served, the method by which the service is to be
provided, the procedures for program oversight and direction, and
the name and license number of the dentist and dental hygienist, if
applicable, who are performing services under the program.
(3) Within 10 business days after the department approves an
application and designates a grantee health agency under subsection
(2), the department shall notify the board of the designation in
writing or make the information electronically available.
(4)
The director of community the
department of health and
human services may appoint an advisory committee to assist the
director
of community the
department of health and human services
in designating grantee health agencies under subsection (2). If the
director
of community the
department of health and human services
does appoint an advisory committee under this subsection, the
director
of community the
department of health and human services
shall include on the advisory committee, at a minimum, a
representative
from the Michigan dental hygienist association
Dental Hygienists' Association or its successor organization and a
representative
from the Michigan dental association Dental
Association or its successor organization.
(5) As used in this section:
(a) "Nursing home" means that term as defined under section
20109.
(b) "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary
institution of learning for any grade from kindergarten to 12.
(c) "Supervision" means the overseeing of or participation in
the work of any other individual by a health professional licensed
under this article in circumstances in which 1 or more of the
following exist:
(i) The continuous availability of direct communication in
person or by radio, telephone, or telecommunication between the
supervised individual and a licensed health professional.
(ii) The availability of a licensed health professional on a
regularly scheduled basis to review the practice of the supervised
individual, to provide consultation to the supervised individual,
to review records, and to further educate the supervised individual
in the performance of the individual's functions.
(iii) The provision by the licensed supervising health
professional of predetermined procedures and drug protocol.
Sec. 16807. This part does not limit any of the following:
(a) An individual employed by a regionally accredited college
or university and involved with research or the teaching of
communication disorders from performing those duties for which he
or she is employed by that institution, as long as the individual
does not engage in the practice of audiology or hold himself or
herself out as licensed or otherwise authorized under this article
as an audiologist.
(b) An individual who is employed by the department of
community
health and human services in 1 of its approved hearing
screening training programs from conducting screening of hearing
sensitivity.
(c) An individual certified by an agency acceptable to the
occupational health standards commission from engaging in hearing
screening as part of a hearing conservation program in compliance
with standards adopted under the Michigan occupational safety and
health act, 1974 PA 154, MCL 408.1001 to 408.1094.
(d) A certified, licensed, registered, or otherwise
statutorily recognized member of another profession, including a
person licensed in the practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine
and surgery and an unlicensed or licensed person to whom tasks have
been delegated under his or her supervision, and including a person
licensed under article 13 of the occupational code, 1980 PA 299,
MCL 339.1301 to 339.1309, from practicing his or her profession as
authorized by law, so long as the individual does not hold himself
or herself out to the public as possessing a license issued or
title protected under this article.
Sec. 17015. (1) Subject to subsection (10), a physician shall
not perform an abortion otherwise permitted by law without the
patient's informed written consent, given freely and without
coercion to abort.
(2) For purposes of this section and section 17015a:
(a) "Abortion" means the intentional use of an instrument,
drug, or other substance or device to terminate a woman's pregnancy
for a purpose other than to increase the probability of a live
birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live
birth, or to remove a fetus that has died as a result of natural
causes, accidental trauma, or a criminal assault on the pregnant
woman. Abortion does not include the use or prescription of a drug
or device intended as a contraceptive.
(b) "Coercion to abort" means an act committed with the intent
to coerce an individual to have an abortion, which act is
prohibited by section 213a of the Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328,
MCL 750.213a.
(c) "Domestic violence" means that term as defined in section
1 of 1978 PA 389, MCL 400.1501.
(d) "Fetus" means an individual organism of the species homo
sapiens in utero.
(e) "Local health department representative" means a person
who meets 1 or more of the licensing requirements listed in
subdivision (h) and who is employed by, or under contract to
provide services on behalf of, a local health department.
(f) "Medical emergency" means that condition which, on the
basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so
complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to
necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her
death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial
and irreversible impairment of a major bodily function.
(g) "Medical service" means the provision of a treatment,
procedure, medication, examination, diagnostic test, assessment, or
counseling, including, but not limited to, a pregnancy test,
ultrasound, pelvic examination, or an abortion.
(h) "Qualified person assisting the physician" means another
physician or a physician's assistant licensed under this part or
part 175, a fully licensed or limited licensed psychologist
licensed under part 182, a professional counselor licensed under
part 181, a registered professional nurse or a licensed practical
nurse licensed under part 172, or a social worker licensed under
part 185.
(i) "Probable gestational age of the fetus" means the
gestational age of the fetus at the time an abortion is planned to
be performed.
(j) "Provide the patient with a physical copy" means
confirming that the patient accessed the internet website described
in subsection (5) and received a printed valid confirmation form
from the website and including that form in the patient's medical
record or giving a patient a copy of a required document by 1 or
more of the following means:
(i) In person.
(ii) By registered mail, return receipt requested.
(iii) By parcel delivery service that requires the recipient
to provide a signature in order to receive delivery of a parcel.
(iv) By facsimile transmission.
(3) Subject to subsection (10), a physician or a qualified
person assisting the physician shall do all of the following not
less than 24 hours before that physician performs an abortion upon
a patient who is a pregnant woman:
(a) Confirm that, according to the best medical judgment of a
physician, the patient is pregnant, and determine the probable
gestational age of the fetus.
(b) Orally describe, in language designed to be understood by
the patient, taking into account her age, level of maturity, and
intellectual capability, each of the following:
(i) The probable gestational age of the fetus she is carrying.
(ii) Information about what to do and whom to contact should
medical complications arise from the abortion.
(iii) Information about how to obtain pregnancy prevention
information
through the department of community health and human
services.
(c) Provide the patient with a physical copy of the written
standardized summary described in subsection (11)(b) that
corresponds to the procedure the patient will undergo and is
provided
by the department of community health and human services.
If the procedure has not been recognized by the department of
health and human services, but is otherwise allowed under Michigan
law, and the department of health and human services has not
provided a written standardized summary for that procedure, the
physician shall develop and provide a written summary that
describes the procedure, any known risks or complications of the
procedure, and risks associated with live birth and meets the
requirements
of subsection (11)(b)(iii) through
to (vii).
(d) Provide the patient with a physical copy of a medically
accurate depiction, illustration, or photograph and description of
a
fetus supplied by the department of community health pursuant to
and human services under subsection (11)(a) at the gestational age
nearest the probable gestational age of the patient's fetus.
(e) Provide the patient with a physical copy of the prenatal
care and parenting information pamphlet distributed by the
department
of community health and
human services under section
9161.
(f) Provide the patient with a physical copy of the
prescreening summary on prevention of coercion to abort described
in subsection (11)(i).
(4) The requirements of subsection (3) may be fulfilled by the
physician or a qualified person assisting the physician at a
location other than the health facility where the abortion is to be
performed. The requirement of subsection (3)(a) that a patient's
pregnancy be confirmed may be fulfilled by a local health
department under subsection (18). The requirements of subsection
(3) cannot be fulfilled by the patient accessing an internet
website other than the internet website that is maintained and
operated by the department of health and human services under
subsection (11)(g).
(5)
The requirements of subsection (3)(c) through to (f)
may
be fulfilled by a patient accessing the internet website that is
maintained and operated by the department of health and human
services under subsection (11)(g) and receiving a printed, valid
confirmation form from the website that the patient has reviewed
the information required in subsection (3)(c) through (f) at least
24 hours before an abortion being performed on the patient. The
website shall not require any information be supplied by the
patient. The department of health and human services shall not
track, compile, or otherwise keep a record of information that
would identify a patient who accesses this website. The patient
shall supply the valid confirmation form to the physician or
qualified person assisting the physician to be included in the
patient's medical record to comply with this subsection.
(6) Subject to subsection (10), before obtaining the patient's
signature on the acknowledgment and consent form, a physician
personally and in the presence of the patient shall do all of the
following:
(a) Provide the patient with the physician's name, confirm
with the patient that the coercion to abort screening required
under section 17015a was performed, and inform the patient of her
right to withhold or withdraw her consent to the abortion at any
time before performance of the abortion.
(b) Orally describe, in language designed to be understood by
the patient, taking into account her age, level of maturity, and
intellectual capability, each of the following:
(i) The specific risk, if any, to the patient of the
complications that have been associated with the procedure the
patient will undergo, based on the patient's particular medical
condition and history as determined by the physician.
(ii) The specific risk of complications, if any, to the
patient if she chooses to continue the pregnancy based on the
patient's particular medical condition and history as determined by
a physician.
(7) To protect a patient's privacy, the information set forth
in subsection (3) and subsection (6) shall not be disclosed to the
patient in the presence of another patient.
(8) If at any time before the performance of an abortion, a
patient undergoes an ultrasound examination, or a physician
determines that ultrasound imaging will be used during the course
of a patient's abortion, the physician or qualified person
assisting the physician shall provide the patient with the
opportunity to view or decline to view an active ultrasound image
of the fetus, and offer to provide the patient with a physical
picture of the ultrasound image of the fetus before the performance
of the abortion. After the expiration of the 24-hour period
prescribed under subsection (3) but before performing an abortion
on a patient who is a pregnant woman, a physician or a qualified
person assisting the physician shall do all of the following:
(a) Obtain the patient's signature on the acknowledgment and
consent form described in subsection (11)(c) confirming that she
has received the information required under subsection (3).
(b) Provide the patient with a physical copy of the signed
acknowledgment and consent form described in subsection (11)(c).
(c) Retain a copy of the signed acknowledgment and consent
form described in subsection (11)(c) and, if applicable, a copy of
the pregnancy certification form completed under subsection
(18)(b), in the patient's medical record.
(9) This subsection does not prohibit notifying the patient
that payment for medical services will be required or that
collection of payment in full for all medical services provided or
planned may be demanded after the 24-hour period described in this
subsection has expired. A physician or an agent of the physician
shall not collect payment, in whole or in part, for a medical
service provided to or planned for a patient before the expiration
of 24 hours from the time the patient has done either or both of
the following, except in the case of a physician or an agent of a
physician receiving capitated payments or under a salary
arrangement for providing those medical services:
(a) Inquired about obtaining an abortion after her pregnancy
is confirmed and she has received from that physician or a
qualified person assisting the physician the information required
under subsection (3)(c) and (d).
(b) Scheduled an abortion to be performed by that physician.
(10) If the attending physician, utilizing his or her
experience, judgment, and professional competence, determines that
a medical emergency exists and necessitates performance of an
abortion before the requirements of subsections (1), (3), and (6)
can be met, the physician is exempt from the requirements of
subsections (1), (3), and (6), may perform the abortion, and shall
maintain a written record identifying with specificity the medical
factors upon which the determination of the medical emergency is
based.
(11)
The department of community health and human services
shall do each of the following:
(a) Produce medically accurate depictions, illustrations, or
photographs of the development of a human fetus that indicate by
scale the actual size of the fetus at 2-week intervals from the
fourth week through the twenty-eighth week of gestation. Each
depiction, illustration, or photograph shall be accompanied by a
printed description, in nontechnical English, Arabic, and Spanish,
of the probable anatomical and physiological characteristics of the
fetus at that particular state of gestational development.
(b) Subject to subdivision (e), develop, draft, and print, in
nontechnical English, Arabic, and Spanish, written standardized
summaries, based upon the various medical procedures used to abort
pregnancies, that do each of the following:
(i) Describe, individually and on separate documents, those
medical procedures used to perform abortions in this state that are
recognized by the department of health and human services.
(ii) Identify the physical complications that have been
associated with each procedure described in subparagraph (i) and
with live birth, as determined by the department of health and
human services. In identifying these complications, the department
shall consider the annual statistical report required under section
2835, and shall consider studies concerning complications that have
been published in a peer review medical journal, with particular
attention paid to the design of the study, and shall consult with
the
federal centers for disease control and prevention, Centers for
Disease
Control and Prevention, the American congress
of
obstetricians
and gynecologists, Congress
of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists,
the Michigan state medical society, State Medical
Society, or any other source that the department of health and
human services determines appropriate for the purpose.
(iii) State that as the result of an abortion, some women may
experience depression, feelings of guilt, sleep disturbance, loss
of interest in work or sex, or anger, and that if these symptoms
occur and are intense or persistent, professional help is
recommended.
(iv) State that not all of the complications listed in
subparagraph (ii) may pertain to that particular patient and refer
the patient to her physician for more personalized information.
(v) Identify services available through public agencies to
assist the patient during her pregnancy and after the birth of her
child, should she choose to give birth and maintain custody of her
child.
(vi) Identify services available through public agencies to
assist the patient in placing her child in an adoptive or foster
home, should she choose to give birth but not maintain custody of
her child.
(vii) Identify services available through public agencies to
assist the patient and provide counseling should she experience
subsequent adverse psychological effects from the abortion.
(c) Develop, draft, and print, in nontechnical English,
Arabic, and Spanish, an acknowledgment and consent form that
includes only the following language above a signature line for the
patient:
"I, _____________________________ , voluntarily and willfully
hereby authorize Dr. __________________ ("the physician") and any
assistant designated by the physician to perform upon me the
following operation(s) or procedure(s):
__________________________________________________________
(Name of operation(s) or procedure(s))
__________________________________________________________
A. I understand that I am approximately _____ weeks pregnant.
I consent to an abortion procedure to terminate my pregnancy. I
understand that I have the right to withdraw my consent to the
abortion procedure at any time before performance of that
procedure.
B. I understand that it is illegal for anyone to coerce me
into seeking an abortion.
C. I acknowledge that at least 24 hours before the scheduled
abortion I have received a physical copy of each of the following:
1. A medically accurate depiction, illustration, or photograph
of a fetus at the probable gestational age of the fetus I am
carrying.
2. A written description of the medical procedure that will be
used to perform the abortion.
3. A prenatal care and parenting information pamphlet.
D. If any of the documents listed in paragraph C were
transmitted by facsimile, I certify that the documents were clear
and legible.
E. I acknowledge that the physician who will perform the
abortion has orally described all of the following to me:
1. The specific risk to me, if any, of the complications that
have been associated with the procedure I am scheduled to undergo.
2. The specific risk to me, if any, of the complications if I
choose to continue the pregnancy.
F. I acknowledge that I have received all of the following
information:
1. Information about what to do and whom to contact in the
event that complications arise from the abortion.
2. Information pertaining to available pregnancy related
services.
G. I have been given an opportunity to ask questions about the
operation(s) or procedure(s).
H. I certify that I have not been required to make any
payments for an abortion or any medical service before the
expiration of 24 hours after I received the written materials
listed in paragraph C, or 24 hours after the time and date listed
on the confirmation form if the information described in paragraph
C was viewed from the state of Michigan internet website.".
(d) Make available to physicians through the Michigan board of
medicine and the Michigan board of osteopathic medicine and
surgery, and to any person upon request, the copies of medically
accurate depictions, illustrations, or photographs described in
subdivision (a), the written standardized summaries described in
subdivision (b), the acknowledgment and consent form described in
subdivision (c), the prenatal care and parenting information
pamphlet described in section 9161, the pregnancy certification
form described in subdivision (f), and the materials regarding
coercion to abort described in subdivision (i).
(e) The department of health and human services shall not
develop written standardized summaries for abortion procedures
under subdivision (b) that utilize medication that has not been
approved
by the United States food and drug administration Food and
Drug Administration for use in performing an abortion.
(f) Develop, draft, and print a certification form to be
signed by a local health department representative at the time and
place a patient has a pregnancy confirmed, as requested by the
patient, verifying the date and time the pregnancy is confirmed.
(g) Develop, operate, and maintain an internet website that
allows a patient considering an abortion to review the information
required
in subsection (3)(c) through to
(f). After the patient
reviews the required information, the department of health and
human
services shall assure ensure that
a confirmation form can be
printed by the patient from the internet website that will verify
the time and date the information was reviewed. A confirmation form
printed under this subdivision becomes invalid 14 days after the
date and time printed on the confirmation form.
(h) Include on the informed consent internet website operated
under subdivision (g) a list of health care providers, facilities,
and clinics that offer to perform ultrasounds free of charge. The
list shall be organized geographically and shall include the name,
address, and telephone number of each health care provider,
facility, and clinic.
(i) After considering the standards and recommendations of the
joint
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations,
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the
Michigan domestic and sexual violence prevention and treatment
board,
the Michigan coalition to end domestic and sexual violence
Coalition to End Domestic and Sexual Violence, or successor
organization,
and the American medical association, Medical
Association, do all of the following:
(i) Develop, draft, and print or make available in printable
format, in nontechnical English, Arabic, and Spanish, a notice that
is required to be posted in facilities and clinics under section
17015a. The notice shall be at least 8-1/2 inches by 14 inches,
shall be printed in at least 44-point type, and shall contain at a
minimum all of the following:
(A) A statement that it is illegal under Michigan law to
coerce a woman to have an abortion.
(B) A statement that help is available if a woman is being
threatened or intimidated; is being physically, emotionally, or
sexually harmed; or feels afraid for any reason.
(C) The telephone number of at least 1 domestic violence
hotline and 1 sexual assault hotline.
(ii) Develop, draft, and print or make available in printable
format, in nontechnical English, Arabic, and Spanish, a
prescreening summary on prevention of coercion to abort that, at a
minimum, contains the information required under subparagraph (i)
and notifies the patient that an oral screening for coercion to
abort will be conducted before her giving written consent to obtain
an abortion.
(iii) Develop, draft, and print screening and training tools
and accompanying training materials to be utilized by a physician
or qualified person assisting the physician while performing the
coercion to abort screening required under section 17015a. The
screening tools shall instruct the physician or qualified person
assisting the physician to orally communicate information to the
patient regarding coercion to abort and to document the findings
from the coercion to abort screening in the patient's medical
record.
(iv) Develop, draft, and print protocols and accompanying
training materials to be utilized by a physician or a qualified
person assisting the physician if a patient discloses coercion to
abort or that domestic violence is occurring, or both, during the
coercion to abort screening. The protocols shall instruct the
physician or qualified person assisting the physician to do, at a
minimum, all of the following:
(A) Follow the requirements of section 17015a as applicable.
(B) Assess the patient's current level of danger.
(C) Explore safety options with the patient.
(D) Provide referral information to the patient regarding law
enforcement and domestic violence and sexual assault support
organizations.
(E) Document any referrals in the patient's medical record.
(12) A physician's duty to inform the patient under this
section does not require disclosure of information beyond what a
reasonably well-qualified physician licensed under this article
would possess.
(13) A written consent form meeting the requirements set forth
in this section and signed by the patient is presumed valid. The
presumption created by this subsection may be rebutted by evidence
that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that consent
was obtained through fraud, negligence, deception,
misrepresentation, coercion, or duress.
(14) A completed certification form described in subsection
(11)(f) that is signed by a local health department representative
is presumed valid. The presumption created by this subsection may
be rebutted by evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the
evidence, that the physician who relied upon the certification had
actual knowledge that the certificate contained a false or
misleading statement or signature.
(15) This section does not create a right to abortion.
(16) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a
person shall not perform an abortion that is prohibited by law.
(17) If any portion of this act or the application of this act
to any person or circumstances is found invalid by a court, that
invalidity does not affect the remaining portions or applications
of the act that can be given effect without the invalid portion or
application, if those remaining portions are not determined by the
court to be inoperable.
(18) Upon a patient's request, each local health department
shall:
(a) Provide a pregnancy test for that patient to confirm the
pregnancy as required under subsection (3)(a) and determine the
probable gestational stage of the fetus. The local health
department need not comply with this subdivision if the
requirements of subsection (3)(a) have already been met.
(b) If a pregnancy is confirmed, ensure that the patient is
provided with a completed pregnancy certification form described in
subsection (11)(f) at the time the information is provided.
(19) The identity and address of a patient who is provided
information
or who consents to an abortion pursuant according to
this section is confidential and is subject to disclosure only with
the consent of the patient or by judicial process.
(20) A local health department with a file containing the
identity and address of a patient described in subsection (19) who
has been assisted by the local health department under this section
shall do both of the following:
(a) Only release the identity and address of the patient to a
physician or qualified person assisting the physician in order to
verify the receipt of the information required under this section.
(b) Destroy the information containing the identity and
address of the patient within 30 days after assisting the patient
under this section.
Sec. 17020. (1) Except as otherwise provided for a test
performed under section 5431 and except as otherwise provided by
law,
beginning upon the expiration of 6 months after the effective
date
of the amendatory act that added this section, September 16,
2000, a physician or an individual to whom the physician has
delegated authority to perform a selected act, task, or function
under section 16215 shall not order a presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test without first obtaining the written, informed consent
of
the test subject, pursuant according
to this section.
(2) For purposes of subsection (1), written, informed consent
consists of a signed writing executed by the test subject or the
legally authorized representative of the test subject that confirms
that the physician or the individual acting under the delegatory
authority of the physician has explained, and the test subject or
the legally authorized representative of the test subject
understands, at a minimum, all of the following:
(a) The nature and purpose of the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test.
(b) The effectiveness and limitations of the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test.
(c) The implications of taking the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test, including, but not limited to, the medical
risks and benefits.
(d) The future uses of the sample taken from the test subject
in order to conduct the presymptomatic or predictive genetic test
and the information obtained from the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test.
(e) The meaning of the presymptomatic or predictive genetic
test results and the procedure for providing notice of the results
to the test subject.
(f) Who will have access to the sample taken from the test
subject in order to conduct the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test and the information obtained from the presymptomatic
or predictive genetic test, and the test subject's right to
confidential treatment of the sample and the information.
(3)
Within 6 months after the effective date of the amendatory
act
that added this section, Not
later than September 15, 2000, the
department
of community health and
human services, in consultation
with the Michigan board of medicine, the Michigan board of
osteopathic medicine and surgery, at least 1 physician who is board
certified
by the American board of medical genetics, Board of
Medical Genetics, and appropriate professional organizations, shall
develop and distribute a model informed consent form for purposes
of this section that practitioners may adopt. The department of
community
health and human services shall include in the model form
at least all of the information required under subsection (2). The
department
of community health and
human services shall distribute
the model form to physicians and other individuals subject to this
section
upon request and at no charge. The department of community
health and human services shall review the model form at least
annually for 5 years after the first model form is distributed, and
shall revise the model form if necessary to make the form reflect
the latest developments in medical genetics.
(4)
The department of community health and human services, in
consultation with the entities described in subsection (3), may
also develop and distribute a pamphlet that provides further
explanation of the information included in the model informed
consent form.
(5) If a test subject or his or her legally authorized
representative signs a copy of the model informed consent form
developed and distributed under subsection (3), the physician or
individual acting under the delegatory authority of the physician
shall give the test subject a copy of the signed informed consent
form and shall include the original signed informed consent form in
the test subject's medical record.
(6) If a test subject or his or her legally authorized
representative signs a copy of the model informed consent form
developed and distributed under subsection (3), the test subject is
barred from subsequently bringing a civil action for damages
against the physician, or an individual to whom the physician
delegated the authority to perform a selected act, task, or
function under section 16215, who ordered the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test, based on failure to obtain informed
consent for the presymptomatic or predictive genetic test.
(7) A physician's duty to inform a patient under this section
does not require disclosure of information beyond what a reasonably
well-qualified physician licensed under this article would know.
(8) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (9), as used in
this section:
(a) "Genetic information" means information about a gene, gene
product, or inherited characteristic which information is derived
from a genetic test.
(b) "Genetic test" means the analysis of human DNA, RNA,
chromosomes, and those proteins and metabolites used to detect
heritable or somatic disease-related genotypes or karyotypes for
clinical purposes. A genetic test must be generally accepted in the
scientific and medical communities as being specifically
determinative for the presence, absence, or mutation of a gene or
chromosome in order to qualify under this definition. Genetic test
does not include a routine physical examination or a routine
analysis, including, but not limited to, a chemical analysis, of
body fluids, unless conducted specifically to determine the
presence, absence, or mutation of a gene or chromosome.
(c) "Predictive genetic test" means a genetic test performed
for the purpose of predicting the future probability that the test
subject will develop a genetically related disease or disability.
(d) "Presymptomatic genetic test" means a genetic test
performed before the onset of clinical symptoms or indications of
disease.
(9) For purposes of subsection (8)(b), the term "genetic test"
does not include a procedure performed as a component of biomedical
research
that is conducted pursuant according
to federal common
rule
under 21 C.F.R. CFR parts 50 and 56 and 45 C.F.R. CFR part
46.
Sec. 17520. (1) Except as otherwise provided for a test
performed under section 5431 and except as otherwise provided by
law,
beginning upon the expiration of 6 months after the effective
date
of the amendatory act that added this section, September 16,
2000, a physician or an individual to whom the physician has
delegated authority to perform a selected act, task, or function
under section 16215 shall not order a presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test without first obtaining the written, informed consent
of
the test subject, pursuant according
to this section.
(2) For purposes of subsection (1), written, informed consent
consists of a signed writing executed by the test subject or the
legally authorized representative of the test subject that confirms
that the physician or the individual acting under the delegatory
authority of the physician has explained, and the test subject or
the legally authorized representative of the test subject
understands, at a minimum, all of the following:
(a) The nature and purpose of the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test.
(b) The effectiveness and limitations of the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test.
(c) The implications of taking the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test, including, but not limited to, the medical
risks and benefits.
(d) The future uses of the sample taken from the test subject
in order to conduct the presymptomatic or predictive genetic test
and the information obtained from the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test.
(e) The meaning of the presymptomatic or predictive genetic
test results and the procedure for providing notice of the results
to the test subject.
(f) Who will have access to the sample taken from the test
subject in order to conduct the presymptomatic or predictive
genetic test and the information obtained from the presymptomatic
or predictive genetic test, and the test subject's right to
confidential treatment of the sample and the information.
(3)
Within 6 months after the effective date of the amendatory
act
that added this section, Not
later than September 15, 2000, the
department
of community health and
human services, in consultation
with the Michigan board of medicine, the Michigan board of
osteopathic medicine and surgery, at least 1 physician who is board
certified
by the American board of medical genetics, Board of
Medical Genetics, and appropriate professional organizations, shall
develop and distribute a model informed consent form for purposes
of this section that practitioners may adopt. The department of
community
health and human services shall include in the model form
at least all of the information required under subsection (2). The
department
of community health and
human services shall distribute
the model form to physicians and other individuals subject to this
section
upon request and at no charge. The department of community
health and human services shall review the model form at least
annually for 5 years after the first model form is distributed, and
shall revise the model form if necessary to make the form reflect
the latest developments in medical genetics.
(4)
The department of community health and human services, in
consultation with the entities described in subsection (3), may
also develop and distribute a pamphlet that provides further
explanation of the information included in the model informed
consent form.
(5) If a test subject or his or her legally authorized
representative signs a copy of the model informed consent form
developed and distributed under subsection (3), the physician or
individual acting under the delegatory authority of the physician
shall give the test subject a copy of the signed informed consent
form and shall include the original signed informed consent form in
the test subject's medical record.
(6) If a test subject or his or her legally authorized
representative signs a copy of the model informed consent form
developed and distributed under subsection (3), the test subject is
barred from subsequently bringing a civil action for damages
against the physician, or an individual to whom the physician
delegated the authority to perform a selected act, task, or
function under section 16215, who ordered the presymptomatic or
predictive genetic test, based on failure to obtain informed
consent for the presymptomatic or predictive genetic test.
(7) A physician's duty to inform a patient under this section
does not require disclosure of information beyond what a reasonably
well-qualified physician licensed under this article would know.
(8) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (9), as used in
this section:
(a) "Genetic information" means information about a gene, gene
product, or inherited characteristic which information is derived
from a genetic test.
(b) "Genetic test" means the analysis of human DNA, RNA,
chromosomes, and those proteins and metabolites used to detect
heritable or somatic disease-related genotypes or karyotypes for
clinical purposes. A genetic test must be generally accepted in the
scientific and medical communities as being specifically
determinative for the presence, absence, or mutation of a gene or
chromosome in order to qualify under this definition. Genetic test
does not include a routine physical examination or a routine
analysis, including, but not limited to, a chemical analysis, of
body fluids, unless conducted specifically to determine the
presence, absence, or mutation of a gene or chromosome.
(c) "Predictive genetic test" means a genetic test performed
for the purpose of predicting the future probability that the test
subject will develop a genetically related disease or disability.
(d) "Presymptomatic genetic test" means a genetic test
performed before the onset of clinical symptoms or indications of
disease.
(9) For purposes of subsection (8)(b), the term "genetic test"
does not include a procedure performed as a component of biomedical
research
that is conducted pursuant according
to federal common
rule
under 21 C.F.R. CFR parts 50 and 56 and 45 C.F.R. CFR part
46.
Sec. 17745a. (1) As used in this section:
(a) "Medicaid" means the program of medical assistance
established
under title XIX of the social security act, chapter
531,
49 Stat. 620, 42 U.S.C. 1396 to 1396f, 1396g-1 to 1396r-6, and
1396r-8
to 1396v.42 USC 1396 to
1396w-5.
(b)
"Medicare" means the federal medicare Medicare program
established
under title XVIII of the social security act, chapter
531,
49 Stat. 620, 42 U.S.C. 1395 to 1395b, 1395b-2, 1395b-6 to
1395b-7,
1395c to 1395i, 1395i-2 to 1395i-5, 1395j to 1395t, 1395u
to
1395w, 1395w-2 to 1395w-4, 1395w-21 to 1395w-28, 1395x to
1395yy,
and 1395bbb to 1395ggg.42 USC
1395 to 1395lll.
(c) "Public health program" means 1 of the following:
(i) A local health department.
(ii) A migrant health center or a community health center as
defined
described under sections 329 and 330 of subpart I of part C
of
title III of the public health
service act, 42 U.S.C. USC
254b
and 254c.
(iii) A family planning program designated and verified by the
family
independence agency department
of health and human services
as a provider type 23 under the social welfare act, 1939 PA 280,
MCL
400.1 to 400.119b. , and verified by the department of
community
health.
(iv) A methadone treatment program licensed under article 6.
(v) A rural health clinic.
(vi) A hospice rendering emergency care services in a
patient's home as described in section 17746.
(d) "Rural health clinic" means a rural health clinic as
defined
in section 1861 of part C of title XVIII of the social
security
act, 42 U.S.C. USC 1395x, that is certified to participate
in
medicaid Medicaid and medicare.Medicare.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (3) and (4),
in a public health program without an on-site pharmacy, a
dispensing prescriber may delegate the dispensing of prescription
drugs only to the following individuals:
(a) A registered professional nurse licensed under part 172.
(b) A physician's assistant licensed under part 170 or part
175, if the delegating dispensing prescriber is responsible for the
clinical supervision of the physician's assistant.
(3) In a public health program without an on-site pharmacy, a
dispensing prescriber may delegate the delivery of prescription
drugs consisting only of prelabeled, prepackaged oral
contraceptives under the following circumstances:
(a) The delivery is delegated to an appropriately trained
individual.
(b)
The delivery is performed pursuant according to specific,
written protocols.
(4) In a methadone treatment program licensed under article 6
without an on-site pharmacy, a dispensing prescriber may delegate
the delivery of a prescription drug consisting only of 1 or more
single doses of methadone, up to the maximum number of single doses
allowed by law, to a registered client of the methadone treatment
program, if all of the following requirements are met:
(a) The delivery is delegated to 1 of the following
individuals:
(i) A registered professional nurse or a licensed practical
nurse licensed under part 172.
(ii) A physician's assistant licensed under part 170 or part
175, but only if the delegating dispensing prescriber is
responsible for the clinical supervision of the physician's
assistant.
(b)
The delivery is performed pursuant according to specific,
written protocols.
(c) The prescription drug described in this subsection is
labeled in accordance with section 17745.
Sec. 17748c. Except for pharmaceuticals on the Michigan
pharmaceutical product list maintained by the department of
community
health and human services, a pharmacist shall not
compound a pharmaceutical that is commercially available unless 1
of the following requirements is met:
(a) The commercially available pharmaceutical is modified to
produce a significant difference, in the professional judgment of
the prescriber, between the compounded pharmaceutical for the
patient and the comparable commercially available pharmaceutical.
(b) The commercially available pharmaceutical is not available
from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the
patient's needs and the dispensing of the compounded pharmaceutical
has been approved by the prescriber and the patient. A pharmacist
who compounds a commercially available pharmaceutical as provided
in this subdivision shall maintain documentation of the reason for
the compounding.
Sec. 17775. (1) This section and section 17776 shall be known
and may be referred to as the "program for utilization of unused
prescription drugs".
(2) As used in this section and section 17776:
(a) "Board" means the Michigan board of pharmacy created under
section 17721.
(b) "Cancer drug" means that term as defined in section 17780.
(c) "Charitable clinic" means a charitable nonprofit
corporation or facility that meets all of the following
requirements:
(i) Is organized as a not-for-profit corporation pursuant
to
under the nonprofit corporation act, 1982 PA 162, MCL 450.2101 to
450.3192.
(ii) Holds a valid exemption from federal income taxation
issued under section 501(a) of the internal revenue code of 1986,
26 USC 501.
(iii) Is listed as an exempt organization under section 501(c)
of the internal revenue code of 1986, 26 USC 501.
(iv) Is organized under or operated as a part of a health
facility or agency licensed under article 17.
(v) Provides on an outpatient basis for a period of less than
24 consecutive hours to persons not residing or confined at the
facility advice, counseling, diagnosis, treatment, surgery, care,
or services relating to the preservation or maintenance of health.
(vi) Has a licensed pharmacy.
(d) "Eligible facility" means a medical institution as that
term
is defined in R 338.486 of the Michigan administrative
code.Administrative Code.
(e) "Eligible participant" means an individual who meets all
of the following requirements:
(i) Is a resident of this state.
(ii) Is eligible to receive medicaid Medicaid or
medicare
Medicare or has no health insurance and otherwise lacks reasonable
means to purchase prescription drugs, as prescribed in rules
promulgated under this section.
(f) "Health professional" means any of the following
individuals licensed and authorized to prescribe and dispense drugs
or to provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnoses,
care, or treatment within the scope of his or her professional
license:
(i) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic
medicine and surgery under part 170 or 175.
(ii) A physician's assistant licensed under part 170, 175, or
180.
(iii) A dentist licensed under part 166.
(iv) An optometrist licensed under part 174.
(v) A pharmacist licensed under this part.
(vi) A podiatrist licensed under part 180.
(g) "Program" means the statewide unused prescription drug
repository and distribution program known as the program for
utilization of unused prescription drugs that is established under
this section.
(3) The board shall establish, implement, and administer a
statewide unused prescription drug repository and distribution
program consistent with public health and safety through which
unused or donated prescription drugs, other than controlled
substances, may be transferred from an eligible facility or
manufacturer to a pharmacy or a charitable clinic that elects to
participate in the program. The program is created to dispense
unused or donated prescription drugs, other than controlled
substances, to eligible participants and to provide for the
destruction and disposal of prescription drugs or other medications
that are ineligible for dispensing under the program.
(4) Participation in the program by an eligible facility,
manufacturer, pharmacy, or charitable clinic is voluntary. Nothing
in this section or section 17776 requires any eligible facility,
manufacturer, pharmacy, or charitable clinic to participate in the
program.
(5) Pharmacies, health professionals, and charitable clinics
that participate in the program shall use the following criteria in
accepting unused or donated prescription drugs from eligible
facilities or manufacturers for use in the program:
(a) Only prescription drugs in their original sealed, tamper-
evident, and unopened unit dose packaging may be accepted for
dispensing.
However, prescription Prescription
drugs packaged in
single-unit dose packaging may be accepted for dispensing even if
the outside packaging is open as long as the single-unit dose
packaging is unopened.
(b) The following shall not be accepted for dispensing:
(i) Expired prescription drugs.
(ii) Controlled substances as defined in article 7 or article
8 or by federal law.
(iii) Drugs that have been held outside of a health
professional's control where sanitation and security cannot be
assured.
(iv) Drugs that can only be dispensed to a patient registered
with
the drug's manufacturer under federal food and drug
administration
Food and Drug Administration requirements.
(c) A prescription drug shall not be accepted for dispensing
if the person accepting the drug has reason to believe that the
drug is adulterated.
(d) Subject to the limitations prescribed in this subsection,
unused or donated prescription drugs dispensed for purposes of a
medical assistance program or drug product donation program may be
accepted for dispensing under the program.
(e) Any additional criteria established in rules promulgated
under this section.
(6) A pharmacy or charitable clinic that meets the eligibility
requirements for participation in the program and any rules
promulgated under this section may do any of the following:
(a) Dispense prescription drugs accepted under the program to
eligible participants.
(b) If established by rule under this section, charge eligible
participants who receive prescription drugs under the program a
handling fee for the service.
(7) A pharmacy or charitable clinic that participates in the
program and accepts prescription drugs for the program shall do all
of the following:
(a) Comply with all applicable federal laws and regulations
and state laws and rules related to the storage and distribution of
harmful drugs.
(b) Inspect all accepted prescription drugs before dispensing
the prescription drugs to determine that the drugs are not
adulterated.
(c)
Dispense prescription drugs only pursuant according to a
prescription issued by a health professional.
(8) A pharmacy, health professional, or charitable clinic that
accepts prescription drugs under the program shall not resell the
prescription drugs. Receipt of a fee from an eligible participant,
if established in rules promulgated under this section, or
reimbursement from a governmental agency to a charitable clinic
does not constitute resale of prescription drugs under this
subsection.
(9) For purposes of the lawful donation, acceptance, or
dispensing of prescription drugs under the program, the following
persons that are in compliance with the program, this section and
section 17776, and any rules promulgated under this section and in
the absence of bad faith or gross negligence are not subject to
criminal or civil liability for injury other than death, or loss to
person or property, or professional disciplinary action:
(a) The board.
(b) The department.
(c) An eligible facility or manufacturer that donates
prescription drugs to the program.
(d) A manufacturer or its representative that directly donates
prescription drugs in professional samples to a charitable clinic
under the program.
(e) A pharmacy, charitable clinic, or health professional that
accepts or dispenses prescription drugs for the program.
(f) A pharmacy or charitable clinic that employs a health
professional who accepts prescription drugs for the program and who
may legally dispense prescription drugs under this part.
(10) A manufacturer is not, in the absence of bad faith,
subject to criminal prosecution or liability in tort or other civil
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property for matters
related to the donation, acceptance, or dispensing of a
prescription drug manufactured by the manufacturer that is donated
by any person under the program, including, but not limited to,
liability for failure to transfer or communicate product or
consumer information or the expiration date of the donated
prescription drug.
(11) Subject to subsection (12), the department, in
consultation with the board, shall promulgate rules under the
administrative procedures act of 1969 and establish procedures
necessary to establish, implement, and administer the program. The
board shall provide technical assistance to eligible facilities,
manufacturers, pharmacies, and charitable clinics that participate
in the program.
(12) The department, in consultation with the board, shall
promulgate emergency rules under the administrative procedures act
of 1969 on or before September 28, 2013 to establish, implement,
and administer the program. The department, in consultation with
the board, shall promulgate permanent rules under the
administrative procedures act of 1969 as soon as practical after
emergency rules have been promulgated under this subsection. The
department and the board shall include all of the following in
rules promulgated under this section:
(a) Eligibility criteria for pharmacies and charitable clinics
authorized to accept and dispense prescription drugs for the
program.
(b) Eligibility criteria for eligible participants.
(c) A list of prescription drugs that are not eligible for
acceptance and dispensing under the program.
(d) Standards and procedures for transfer, transportation,
acceptance, safe storage, security, and dispensing of prescription
drugs.
(e) A process for seeking input from the department of health
and
human services and the department of
community health in
establishing provisions that affect eligible facilities.
(f) A process for seeking input from the department of health
and
human services and the department of
community health in
establishing provisions that affect mental health and substance
abuse clients.
(g) Standards and procedures for inspecting accepted
prescription drugs to ensure that the prescription drugs meet the
requirements of the program and to ensure that, in the professional
judgment of the pharmacist, the prescription drugs meet all federal
and state standards for product integrity.
(h) Procedures for the destruction and environmentally sound
disposal of prescription drugs or other medications that are
accepted and that are ineligible for dispensing under the program.
(i) Procedures for verifying whether the charitable clinic,
pharmacy, pharmacist, or other health professionals participating
in the program are licensed and in good standing with the
applicable licensing board.
(j) Standards for acceptance of unused or donated prescription
drugs from eligible facilities.
(k) Standards for the acceptance by a pharmacy, health
professional, or charitable clinic that participates in the program
from any person of a prescription drug or any other medication that
is ineligible for dispensing under the program for destruction and
disposal.
(l) Any other standards and procedures the department, in
consultation with the board, considers appropriate or necessary to
establish, implement, and administer the program.
(13)
Pursuant According to the rules promulgated and standards
and procedures established for the program under this section, a
resident of an eligible facility or the representative or guardian
of a resident of an eligible facility may donate unused
prescription drugs for dispensing to eligible participants under
the program.
(14)
Pursuant According to rules promulgated and standards and
procedures established for the program under this section, a person
may deliver to a pharmacy, health professional, or charitable
clinic that participates in the program a prescription drug or any
other medication that is ineligible for dispensing under the
program for destruction and disposal.
(15) This section and section 17776 do not impair or supersede
the provisions regarding the cancer drug repository program
established in section 17780. If any provision of this section or
section 17776 conflicts with a provision of section 17780 with
regard to a cancer drug, section 17780 controls.
Sec. 20106. (1) "Health facility or agency", except as
provided in section 20115, means:
(a) An ambulance operation, aircraft transport operation,
nontransport prehospital life support operation, or medical first
response service.
(b) A county medical care facility.
(c) A freestanding surgical outpatient facility.
(d) A health maintenance organization.
(e) A home for the aged.
(f) A hospital.
(g) A nursing home.
(h) A hospice.
(i) A hospice residence.
(j) A facility or agency listed in subdivisions (a) to (g)
located in a university, college, or other educational institution.
(2) "Health maintenance organization" means that term as
defined in section 3501 of the insurance code of 1956, 1956 PA 218,
MCL 500.3501.
(3) "Home for the aged" means a supervised personal care
facility, other than a hotel, adult foster care facility, hospital,
nursing home, or county medical care facility that provides room,
board, and supervised personal care to 21 or more unrelated,
nontransient, individuals 60 years of age or older. Home for the
aged includes a supervised personal care facility for 20 or fewer
individuals 60 years of age or older if the facility is operated in
conjunction with and as a distinct part of a licensed nursing home.
Home for the aged does not include an area excluded from this
definition by section 17(3) of the continuing care community
disclosure act, 2014 PA 448, MCL 554.917.
(4) "Hospice" means a health care program that provides a
coordinated set of services rendered at home or in outpatient or
institutional settings for individuals suffering from a disease or
condition with a terminal prognosis.
(5) "Hospital" means a facility offering inpatient, overnight
care, and services for observation, diagnosis, and active treatment
of an individual with a medical, surgical, obstetric, chronic, or
rehabilitative condition requiring the daily direction or
supervision of a physician. Hospital does not include a mental
health
hospital licensed or operated by the department of community
health and human services or a hospital operated by the department
of corrections.
(6) "Hospital long-term care unit" means a nursing care
facility, owned and operated by and as part of a hospital,
providing organized nursing care and medical treatment to 7 or more
unrelated individuals suffering or recovering from illness, injury,
or infirmity.
Sec. 20115. (1) The department may promulgate rules to further
define the term "health facility or agency" and the definition of a
health facility or agency listed in section 20106 as required to
implement this article. The department may define a specific
organization as a health facility or agency for the sole purpose of
certification authorized under this article. For purpose of
certification only, an organization defined in section 20106(5),
20108(1), or 20109(4) is considered a health facility or agency.
The term "health facility or agency" does not mean a visiting nurse
service or home aide service conducted by and for the adherents of
a church or religious denomination for the purpose of providing
service for those who depend upon spiritual means through prayer
alone for healing.
(2) The department shall promulgate rules to differentiate a
freestanding surgical outpatient facility from a private office of
a physician, dentist, podiatrist, or other health professional. The
department shall specify in the rules that a facility including,
but not limited to, a private practice office described in this
subsection must be licensed under this article as a freestanding
surgical outpatient facility if that facility performs 120 or more
surgical abortions per year and publicly advertises outpatient
abortion services.
(3) The department shall promulgate rules that in effect
republish R 325.3826, R 325.3832, R 325.3835, R 325.3857, R
325.3866,
R 325.3867, and R 325.3868 of the Michigan administrative
code,
Administrative Code, but shall include in the rules standards
for a freestanding surgical outpatient facility or private practice
office that performs 120 or more surgical abortions per year and
that publicly advertises outpatient abortion services. The
department
shall assure ensure that the standards are consistent
with
the most recent United States supreme court Supreme Court
decisions regarding state regulation of abortions.
(4) Subject to section 20145 and part 222, the department may
modify or waive 1 or more of the rules contained in R 325.3801 to R
325.3877
of the Michigan administrative code Administrative Code
regarding construction or equipment standards, or both, for a
freestanding surgical outpatient facility that performs 120 or more
surgical abortions per year and that publicly advertises outpatient
abortion services, if both of the following conditions are met:
(a) The freestanding surgical outpatient facility was in
existence and operating on December 31, 2012.
(b) The department makes a determination that the existing
construction or equipment conditions, or both, within the
freestanding surgical outpatient facility are adequate to preserve
the health and safety of the patients and employees of the
freestanding surgical outpatient facility or that the construction
or equipment conditions, or both, can be modified to adequately
preserve the health and safety of the patients and employees of the
freestanding surgical outpatient facility without meeting the
specific requirements of the rules.
(5)
By January 15 each year, the department of community
health and human services shall provide the following information
to
the department: of licensing and regulatory affairs:
(a)
From data received by the department of community health
and human services through the abortion reporting requirements of
section 2835, all of the following:
(i) The name and location of each facility at which abortions
were performed during the immediately preceding calendar year.
(ii) The total number of abortions performed at that facility
location during the immediately preceding calendar year.
(iii) The total number of surgical abortions performed at that
facility location during the immediately preceding calendar year.
(b) Whether a facility at which surgical abortions were
performed in the immediately preceding calendar year publicly
advertises abortion services.
(6) As used in this section:
(a) "Abortion" means that term as defined in section 17015.
(b) "Publicly advertises" means to advertise using directory
or internet advertising including yellow pages, white pages, banner
advertising, or electronic publishing.
(c) "Surgical abortion" means an abortion that is not a
medical abortion as that term is defined in section 17017.
Sec. 20156. (1) A representative of the department or the
bureau of fire services created in section 1b of the fire
prevention code, 1941 PA 207, MCL 29.1b, upon presentation of
proper identification, may enter the premises of an applicant or
licensee at any reasonable time to determine whether the applicant
or licensee meets the requirements of this article and the rules
promulgated under this article. The director; the director of the
department of health and human services; the bureau of fire
services; the director of the office of services to the aging; or
the director of a local health department; or an authorized
representative of the director, the director of the department of
health and human services, the bureau of fire services, the
director of the office of services to the aging, or the director of
a local health department may enter on the premises of an applicant
or licensee under part 217 at any time in the course of carrying
out program responsibilities.
(2) The bureau of fire services created in section 1b of the
fire prevention code, 1941 PA 207, MCL 29.1b, shall enforce rules
promulgated by the bureau of fire services for health facilities
and
agencies to assure ensure that physical facilities owned,
maintained, or operated by a health facility or agency are planned,
constructed, and maintained in a manner to protect the health,
safety, and welfare of patients.
(3) The department shall not issue a license or certificate to
a health facility or agency until it receives an appropriate
certificate of approval from the bureau of fire services. For
purposes of this section, a decision of the bureau of fire services
to issue a certificate controls over that of a local fire
department.
(4) Subsections (2) and (3) do not apply to a health facility
or an agency licensed under part 205 or 209.
Sec. 21313. (1) The owner, operator, and governing body of a
home for the aged are responsible for all phases of the operation
of the home and shall assure that the home maintains an organized
program to provide room and board, protection, supervision,
assistance, and supervised personal care for its residents.
(2) The owner, operator, and governing body shall assure the
availability of emergency medical care required by a resident.
(3) The owner, operator, or member of the governing body of a
home for the aged and the authorized representative shall be of
good moral character.
(4) The department of health and human services shall not
issue a license to or renew the license of an owner, operator, or
member of the governing body, who has regular direct access to
residents or who has on-site facility operational responsibilities,
or an applicant, if an individual or the authorized representative,
if any of those individuals have been convicted of 1 or more of the
following:
(a) A felony under this act or under chapter XXA of the
Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.145m to 750.145r.
(b) A misdemeanor under this act or under chapter XXA of the
Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.145m to 750.145r, within
the 10 years immediately preceding the application.
(c) A misdemeanor involving abuse, neglect, assault, battery,
or criminal sexual conduct or involving fraud or theft against a
vulnerable adult as that term is defined in section 145m of the
Michigan penal code, 1931 PA 328, MCL 750.145m, or a state or
federal crime that is substantially similar to a misdemeanor
described in this subdivision within the 10 years immediately
preceding the application.
(5) The applicant for a license for a home for the aged, if an
individual, shall give written consent at the time of license
application and the authorized representative shall give written
consent at the time of appointment, for the department of state
police to conduct both of the following:
(a) A criminal history check.
(b)
A criminal records check through the federal bureau of
investigation.Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(6) Unless already submitted under subsection (5), an owner,
operator, or member of the governing body who has regular direct
access to residents or who has on-site facility operational
responsibilities for a home for the aged shall give written consent
at the time of license application for the department of state
police to conduct both of the following:
(a) A criminal history check.
(b)
A criminal records check through the federal bureau of
investigation.Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(7) The department of health and human services shall require
the applicant, authorized representative, owner, operator, or
member of the governing body who has regular direct access to
residents or who has on-site facility operational responsibilities
to submit his or her fingerprints to the department of state police
for the criminal history check and criminal records check described
in subsections (5) and (6).
(8)
Not later than 1 year after the effective date of the 2012
amendatory
act that amended this subsection, all All owners,
operators, and members of the governing body of homes for the aged
who have regular direct access to residents or who have on-site
facility operational responsibilities and all authorized
representatives shall comply with the requirements of this section.
(9) The department of health and human services shall request
a criminal history check and criminal records check in the manner
prescribed by the department of state police. The department of
state police shall conduct the criminal history check and provide a
report of the results to the licensing or regulatory bureau of the
department of health and human services. The report shall contain
any criminal history information on the person maintained by the
department of state police and the results of the criminal records
check
from the federal bureau of investigation. Federal Bureau of
Investigation. The department of state police may charge the person
on whom the criminal history check and criminal records check are
performed under this section a fee for the checks required under
this section that does not exceed the actual cost and reasonable
cost of conducting the checks.
(10)
Beginning the effective date of the 2012 amendatory act
that
added this subsection, if If an applicant, authorized
representative, owner, operator, or member of the governing body
who has regular direct access to residents or who has on-site
facility operational responsibilities applies for a license or to
renew a license to operate a home for the aged and previously
underwent a criminal history check and criminal records check
required under subsection (5) or (6) or under section 134a of the
mental health code, 1974 PA 258, MCL 330.1134a, and has remained
continuously licensed or continuously employed under section 20173a
or under section 34b of the adult foster care facility licensing
act, 1979 PA 218, MCL 400.734b, after the criminal history check
and criminal records check have been performed, the applicant,
authorized representative, owner, operator, or member of the
governing body who has regular direct access to residents or who
has on-site facility operational responsibilities is not required
to submit to another criminal history check or criminal records
check upon renewal of the license obtained under this section.
(11) The department of state police shall store and maintain
all fingerprints submitted under this act in an automated
fingerprint identification system database that provides for an
automatic notification at the time a subsequent criminal arrest
fingerprint card submitted into the system matches a set of
fingerprints previously submitted in accordance with this act. At
the time of that notification, the department of state police shall
immediately notify the department of health and human services. The
department of health and human services shall take the appropriate
action upon notification by the department of state police under
this subsection.
(12) An applicant, owner, operator, member of a governing
body, or authorized representative of a home for the aged shall not
be present in a home for the aged if he or she has been convicted
of either of the following:
(a) Vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or financial
exploitation.
(b) A listed offense as defined in section 2 of the sex
offenders registration act, 1994 PA 295, MCL 28.722.
Sec. 21332. A home for the aged shall offer each resident, or
shall provide each resident with information and assistance in
obtaining, an annual vaccination against influenza in accordance
with
the most recent recommendations of the advisory committee on
immunization
practices Advisory Committee
on Immunization Practices
of
the federal centers for disease control and prevention, Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention, as approved by the department
of
community health and human
services.
Sec. 21601. (1) As used in this part:
(a) "Active patient" means a person who has received any type
of dental care in a mobile dental facility in the preceding 24
months.
(b) "Assessment of a patient" means a limited clinical
inspection that is performed to identify possible signs of oral or
systemic disease, malformation, or injury, and the potential need
for referral for diagnosis and treatment.
(c) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnostic service provided
by a dentist that includes a complete intra- and extra-oral
inspection, may include other modalities of examination to identify
signs of oral or systemic disease, malformation, or injury, and may
include the completion of diagnosis and treatment planning to
determine the treatment needs of an individual patient.
(d) "Comprehensive dental services" means clinical evaluation,
including diagnosis and treatment planning; imagery services; and
indicated treatment that may include preventative, restorative, and
surgical procedures that are considered necessary for an individual
patient.
(e) "Dental home" means a network of individualized care based
on risk assessment, that includes oral health education, dental
screenings, preventative dental services, diagnostic services,
comprehensive dental services, and emergency services.
(f)
"Department" means the department of community health and
human services.
(g) "Imagery" means visualization of oral and facial
structures using specialized instruments and techniques for
diagnostic purposes.
(h) "Memorandum of agreement" means written documentation of
an agreement between parties to work together cooperatively on an
agreed-upon project or meet an agreed-upon objective. The purpose
of a memorandum of agreement is to have a written understanding of
the agreement between the parties. A memorandum of agreement serves
as a legal document that is binding and holds the parties
responsible to their commitment along with describing the terms and
details of the cooperative agreement. A memorandum of agreement may
be used between agencies, the public, the federal or state
government, communities, and individuals.
(i) "Mobile dental facility" means either of the following:
(i) A self-contained, intact facility in which dentistry or
dental hygiene is practiced that may be transported from 1 location
to another.
(ii) A site used on a temporary basis to provide dental
services using portable equipment.
(j) "Operator" means either of the following:
(i) An individual with a valid, current license to practice
dentistry or dental hygiene in this state who utilizes and holds a
permit under this part for a mobile dental facility.
(ii) A corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or
any governmental agency contracting with individuals licensed to
practice dentistry in this state or dental hygienists licensed in
this state, that utilizes and holds a permit under this part for a
mobile dental facility.
(k) "Preventative dental services" means dental services that
include, but are not limited to, screening of a patient, assessment
of a patient, prophylaxis, fluoride treatments, and application of
sealants. Imagery studies are not preventative dental services.
(l) "Screening of a patient" means screening, including state-
or federally mandated screening, to determine an individual's need
to be seen by a dentist for diagnosis.
(2) In addition, article 1 contains general definitions and
principles of construction applicable to this part.
Sec. 21716. A nursing home shall offer each resident, or shall
provide each resident with information and assistance in obtaining,
an annual vaccination against influenza in accordance with the most
recent
recommendations of the advisory committee on immunization
practices
Advisory Committee on
Immunization Practices of the
federal
centers for disease control and prevention, Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention, as approved by the department of
community
health and human services.
Sec. 21766. (1) A nursing home shall execute a written
contract solely with an applicant or patient or that applicant's or
patient's guardian or legal representative authorized by law to
have access to those portions of the patient's or applicant's
income or assets available to pay for nursing home care, at each of
the following times:
(a) At the time an individual is admitted to a nursing home.
(b) At the expiration of the term of a previous contract.
(c) At the time the source of payment for the patient's care
changes.
(2) A nursing home shall not discharge or transfer a patient
at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in
section 21773.
(3) A nursing home shall specifically notify in writing an
applicant or patient or that applicant's or patient's guardian or
legal representative of the availability or lack of availability of
hospice care in the nursing home. This written notice shall be by
way of a specific paragraph located in the written contract
described in subsection (1) and shall require the applicant or
patient or that applicant's or patient's guardian or legal
representative to sign or initial the paragraph before execution of
the written contract. As used in this subsection, "hospice" means
that term as defined in section 20106(4).
(4) A nursing home shall provide a copy of the contract to the
patient, the patient's representative, or the patient's legal
representative or legal guardian at the time the contract is
executed.
(5) For a patient supported by funds other than the patient's
own funds, a nursing home shall make a copy of the contract
available to the person providing the funds for the patient's
support.
(6) For a patient whose care is reimbursed with public funds
administered
by the department of community health and human
services, a nursing home shall maintain a copy of the contract in
the patient's file at the nursing home and upon request shall make
a
copy of the contract available to the department of community
health and human services.
(7) The nursing home shall ensure that the contract is written
in clear and unambiguous language and is printed in not less than
12-point type. The form of the contract shall be prescribed by the
department.
(8) The contract shall specify all of the following:
(a) The term of the contract.
(b) The services to be provided under the contract, including
the availability of hospice or other special care, and the charges
for the services.
(c) The services that may be provided to supplement the
contract and the charges for the services.
(d) The sources liable for payments due under the contract.
(e) The amount of deposit paid and the general and foreseeable
terms upon which the deposit will be held and refunded.
(f) The rights, duties, and obligations of the patient, except
that the specification of a patient's rights may be furnished on a
separate document that complies with the requirements of section
20201.
(9) The nursing home may require a patient's or applicant's
guardian or legal representative who is authorized by law to have
access to those portions of the patient's or applicant's income or
assets available to pay for nursing home care to sign a contract
without incurring personal financial liability other than for funds
received in his or her legal capacity on behalf of the patient.
(10) A nursing home employee may request the appointment of a
guardian for an individual applicant or patient only if the nursing
home employee reasonably believes that the individual meets the
legal requirements for the appointment of a guardian.
Sec. 21773. (1) A nursing home shall not involuntarily
transfer or discharge a patient except for 1 or more of the
following purposes:
(a) Medical reasons.
(b) The patient's welfare.
(c) The welfare of other patients or nursing home employees.
(d) Nonpayment for the patient's stay, except as prohibited by
title
XIX of the social security act, chapter 531, 49 Stat. 620, 42
U.S.C.
1396 to 1396r-6 and 1396r-8 to 1396v.42 USC 1396 to 1396w-5.
(2) A licensed nursing home shall provide written notice at
least 30 days before a patient is involuntarily transferred or
discharged. The 30-day requirement of this subsection does not
apply in any of the following instances:
(a) If an emergency transfer or discharge is mandated by the
patient's health care needs and is in accord with the written
orders and medical justification of the attending physician.
(b) If the transfer or discharge is mandated by the physical
safety of other patients and nursing home employees as documented
in the clinical record.
(c) If the transfer or discharge is subsequently agreed to by
the patient or the patient's legal guardian, and notification is
given to the next of kin and the person or agency responsible for
the patient's placement, maintenance, and care in the nursing home.
(3) The notice required by subsection (2) shall be on a form
prescribed
by the department of consumer and industry services and
shall contain all of the following:
(a) The stated reason for the proposed transfer.
(b) The effective date of the proposed transfer.
(c) A statement in not less than 12-point type that reads:
"You have a right to appeal the nursing home's decision to transfer
you. If you think you should not have to leave this facility, you
may
file a request for a hearing with the department of consumer
and
industry services licensing
and regulatory affairs within 10
days after receiving this notice. If you request a hearing, it will
be held at least 7 days after your request, and you will not be
transferred during that time. If you lose the hearing, you will not
be transferred until at least 30 days after you received the
original notice of the discharge or transfer. A form to appeal the
nursing home's decision and to request a hearing is attached. If
you
have any questions, call the department of consumer and
industry
services licensing and
regulatory affairs at the number
listed below."
(d) A hearing request form, together with a postage paid,
preaddressed
envelope to the department. of consumer and industry
services.
(e) The name, address, and telephone number of the responsible
official
in the department. of consumer and industry services.
(4) A request for a hearing made under subsection (3) shall
stay a transfer pending a hearing or appeal decision.
(5) A copy of the notice required by subsection (3) shall be
placed in the patient's clinical record and a copy shall be
transmitted
to the department, of consumer and industry services,
the patient, the patient's next of kin, patient's representative,
or legal guardian, and the person or agency responsible for the
patient's placement, maintenance, and care in the nursing home.
(6) If the basis for an involuntary transfer or discharge is
the
result of a negative action by the department of community
health and human services with respect to a medicaid Medicaid
client
and a hearing request is filed with that the department of
health and human services, the 21-day written notice period of
subsection (2) does not begin until a final decision in the matter
is
rendered by the department of community health and human
services or a court of competent jurisdiction and notice of that
final decision is received by the patient and the nursing home.
(7) If nonpayment is the basis for involuntary transfer or
discharge, the patient may redeem up to the date that the discharge
or transfer is to be made and then may remain in the nursing home.
(8) The nursing home administrator or other appropriate
nursing home employee designated by the nursing home administrator
shall discuss an involuntary transfer or discharge with the
patient, the patient's next of kin or legal guardian, and person or
agency responsible for the patient's placement, maintenance, and
care in the nursing home. The discussion shall include an
explanation of the reason for the involuntary transfer or
discharge. The content of the discussion and explanation shall be
summarized in writing and shall include the names of the
individuals involved in the discussions and made a part of the
patient's clinical record.
(9) The nursing home shall provide the patient with counseling
services before the involuntary transfer or discharge and the
department
shall assure ensure that counseling services are
available after the involuntary transfer or discharge to minimize
the possible adverse effect of the involuntary transfer or
discharge.
(10) If a nursing home voluntarily withdraws from
participation
in the state plan for medicaid Medicaid
funding, but
continues to provide services, the nursing home shall not, except
as provided in subsection (1), involuntarily transfer or discharge
a
patient, whether or not the patient is eligible for medicaid
Medicaid benefits, who resided in the nursing home on the day
before the effective date of the nursing home's withdrawal from
participation. The prohibition against transfer or discharge
imposed by this subsection continues unless the patient falls
within 1 or more of the exceptions described in subsection (1).
(11) If an individual becomes a patient of a nursing home
after the date the nursing home withdraws from participation in the
state
plan for medicaid Medicaid
funding, the nursing home, on or
before the date the individual signs a contract with the nursing
home, shall provide to the patient oral and written notice of both
of the following:
(a) That the nursing home is not participating in the state
plan
for medicaid Medicaid funding.
(b) That the facility may involuntarily transfer or discharge
the patient for nonpayment under subsection (1)(d) even if the
patient
is eligible for medicaid Medicaid
benefits.
Sec. 21777. (1) If a patient is temporarily absent from a
nursing home for emergency medical treatment, the nursing home
shall hold the bed open for 10 days for that patient in the
patient's absence, if there is a reasonable expectation that the
patient will return within that period of time and the nursing home
receives payment for each day during the absent period.
(2) If a patient is temporarily absent from a nursing home for
therapeutic reasons as approved by a physician, the nursing home
shall hold the bed open for 18 days, if there is a reasonable
expectation that the patient will return within that period of time
and the nursing home receives payment for each day during the
absent period. Temporary absences for therapeutic reasons are
limited to 18 days per year.
(3) When a patient's absence is longer than specified under
subsection (1) or (2), or both, the patient has the option to
return to the nursing home for the next available bed.
(4)
For title 19 XIX patients, the department of community
health and human services shall continue funding for the temporary
absence as provided under subsections (1) and (2) if the nursing
home is at 98% or more occupancy except for any bed being held open
under subsection (1) or (2).
Sec.
21799b. (1) If, upon investigation, the department of
consumer
and industry services finds that a
licensee is not in
compliance with this part, a rule promulgated under this part, or a
federal law or regulation governing nursing home certification
under title XVIII or XIX, which noncompliance impairs the ability
of the licensee to deliver an acceptable level of care and
services, or in the case of a nursing home closure, the department
of
consumer and industry services shall
notify the department of
community
health and human services of the finding and may issue 1
or more of the following correction notices to the licensee:
(a) Suspend the admission or readmission of patients to the
nursing home.
(b) Reduce the licensed capacity of the nursing home.
(c) Selectively transfer patients whose care needs are not
being met by the licensee.
(d) Initiate action to place the home in receivership as
prescribed in section 21751.
(e) Require appointment at the nursing home's expense of a
department
approved department-approved temporary administrative
advisor or a temporary clinical advisor, or both, with authority
and duties specified by the department to assist the nursing home
management and staff to achieve sustained compliance with required
operating standards.
(f) Require appointment at the nursing home's expense of a
department
approved department-approved temporary manager with
authority and duties specified by the department to oversee the
nursing home's achievement of sustained compliance with required
operating standards or to oversee the orderly closure of the
nursing home.
(g) Issue a correction notice to the licensee and the
department
of community health and
human services describing the
violation and the statute or rule violated and specifying the
corrective action to be taken and the period of time in which the
corrective action is to be completed. Upon issuance, the director
shall cause to be published in a daily newspaper of general
circulation in an area in which the nursing home is located notice
of the action taken and the listing of conditions upon which the
director's action is predicated.
(2) Within 72 hours after receipt of a notice issued under
subsection (1), the licensee shall be given an opportunity for a
hearing on the matter. The director's notice shall continue in
effect during the pendency of the hearing and any subsequent court
proceedings. The hearing shall be conducted in compliance with the
administrative procedures act of 1969.
(3) A licensee who believes that a correction notice has been
complied with may request a verification of compliance from the
department. Not later than 72 hours after the licensee makes the
request, the department shall investigate to determine whether the
licensee has taken the corrective action prescribed in the notice
under subsection (1)(g). If the department finds that the licensee
has taken the corrective action and that the conditions giving rise
to the notice have been alleviated, the department may cease taking
further action against the licensee, or may take other action that
the director considers appropriate.
(4) As used in this part, "title XVIII" and "title XIX" mean
those terms as defined in section 20155.
(5) The department shall report annually to the house and
senate standing committees on senior issues on the number of times
the department appointed a temporary administrative advisor,
temporary clinical advisor, and temporary manager as described in
subsection (1)(e) or (f). The report shall include whether the
nursing home closed or remained open. The department may include
this report with other reports made to fulfill legislative
reporting requirements.
(6) If the department determines that a nursing home's
patients can be safeguarded and provided with a safe environment,
the department shall make its decisions concerning the nursing
home's future operation based on a presumption in favor of keeping
the nursing home open.
Sec. 21799c. (1) A person who violates 1 of the following
sections is guilty of a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment for
not more than 1 year or a fine of not less than $1,000.00, nor more
than $10,000.00, or both:
(a) Section 21711.
(b) Section 21712.
(c) Section 21763(5).
(d) Section 21765a(1) or (2).
(e) Section 21771(1) or (6).
(f) Section 21791.
(2) A person who violates section 21765a(1) or (2) is liable
to an applicant or patient in a civil action for treble the amount
of actual damages or $1,000.00, whichever is greater, together with
costs and reasonable attorney fees.
(3) For the purpose of computing administrative penalties
under this section, the number of patients per day is based on the
average number of patients in the nursing home during the 30 days
immediately preceding the discovery of the violation.
(4) If the department finds a violation of section 20201 as to
a particular nursing home patient, the department shall issue an
order requiring the nursing home to pay to the patient $100.00, or
to reimburse the patient for costs incurred or injuries sustained
as a result of the violation, whichever is greater. The department
also shall assess the nursing home an administrative penalty that
is the lesser of the following:
(a) Not more than $1,500.00.
(b) $15.00 per patient bed.
(5)
The department of community health and human services
shall promulgate rules for a quality of care allowance formula that
is consistent with the recommendations of the fiscal incentives
subcommittee to the committee on nursing home reimbursement
established
pursuant according to Act No. 241 of the Public Acts of
1975,
former 1975 PA 241, as described in the November 24, 1975
interim report, in the December 3, 1975 final report, and the
November 24, 1976 report of the committee recommending appropriate
changes in the procedures utilized.
(6) The department shall not assess an administrative penalty
under subsection (4) for a violation of this part for which a
nursing home's reimbursement is withheld under subsection (5).
Sec. 22205. (1) "Health facility", except as otherwise
provided in subsection (2), means:
(a) A hospital licensed under part 215.
(b) A psychiatric hospital or psychiatric unit licensed under
the mental health code, 1974 PA 258, MCL 330.1001 to 330.2106.
(c) A nursing home licensed under part 217 or a hospital long-
term care unit as defined in section 20106(6).
(d) A freestanding surgical outpatient facility licensed under
part 208.
(e) A health maintenance organization issued a license or
certificate of authority in this state.
(2) "Health facility" does not include the following:
(a) An institution conducted by and for the adherents of a
church or religious denomination for the purpose of providing
facilities for the care and treatment of the sick who depend solely
upon spiritual means through prayer for healing.
(b) A health facility or agency located in a correctional
institution.
(c) A veterans facility operated by the state or federal
government.
(d) A facility owned and operated by the department of
community
health and human services.
(3) "Initiate" means the offering of a covered clinical
service that has not been offered in compliance with this part or
former part 221 on a regular basis at that location within the 12-
month period immediately preceding the date the covered clinical
service will be offered.
(4) "Medical equipment" means a single equipment component or
a related system of components that is used for clinical purposes.
Sec. 22207. (1) "Medicaid" means the program for medical
assistance
administered by the department of community health and
human services under the social welfare act, 1939 PA 280, MCL 400.1
to 400.119b.
(2) "Modernization" means an upgrading, alteration, or change
in function of a part or all of the physical plant of a health
facility. Modernization includes, but is not limited to, the
alteration, repair, remodeling, and renovation of an existing
building and initial fixed equipment and the replacement of
obsolete fixed equipment in an existing building. Modernization of
the physical plant does not include normal maintenance and
operational expenses.
(3) "New construction" means construction of a health facility
where a health facility does not exist or construction replacing or
expanding an existing health facility or a part of an existing
health facility.
(4) "Person" means a person as defined in section 1106 or a
governmental entity.
(5) "Planning area" means the area defined in a certificate of
need review standard for determining the need for, and the resource
allocation of, a specific health facility, service, or equipment.
Planning area includes, but is not limited to, the state, a health
facility service area, or a health service area or subarea within
the state.
(6) "Proposed project" means a proposal to acquire an existing
health facility or begin operation of a new health facility, make a
change in bed capacity, initiate, replace, or expand a covered
clinical service, or make a covered capital expenditure.
(7) "Rural county" means a county not located in a
metropolitan statistical area or micropolitan statistical areas as
those terms are defined under the "standards for defining
metropolitan
and micropolitan statistical areas" by the statistical
policy
office of the office of information and regulatory affairs
Statistical Policy Office of the Office of Information and
Regulatory
Affairs of the United States office
of management and
budget,
Office of Management and Budget,
65 F.R. FR p.
82238
(December 27, 2000).
(8) "Stipulation" means a requirement that is germane to the
proposed project and has been agreed to by an applicant as a
condition of certificate of need approval.
Enacting section 1. This amendatory act takes effect 90 days
after the date it is enacted into law.