103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
SB2812
 
Introduced 1/17/2024, by Sen. Ann Gillespie
 
SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

New Act
50 ILCS 705/6.3
210 ILCS 50/3.50
210 ILCS 50/3.51 new
 Creates the First Responder Trauma-Informed Response Training Act, which may be referred to as Anna's Law. Provides that, prior to the onboarding processes of a first responder, the individual must complete mandatory pass or fail trauma-informed response training, as established by the Department of Public Health. Provides that a first responder must also complete the pass or fail trauma-informed response training every 18 months after beginning work as a first responder. Provides that, if more than 18 months has elapsed after beginning work as a first responder and the first responder has not completed the retraining, the first responder may not perform trauma-related duties, such as responding to emergency calls, taking statements from victims, or interviewing victims. Provides that, if a first responder who is certified or licensed by the State or a subdivision of the State has not completed the required trauma-informed response retraining, the first responder may be decertified by the certifying entity or the first responder's license may be revoked by the licensing entity if retraining is not completed. Limits the concurrent exercise of home rule powers. Defines terms. Makes conforming changes in the Illinois Police Training Act and the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, including requiring the Department of Public Health to adopt rules to implement the trauma-informed response training and providing that the rules may allow or require the use of a training program from a university, college, or not-for-profit entity. 


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A BILL FOR
 
SB2812LRB103 35853 AWJ 65938 b


1 AN ACT concerning government.

2 Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, 
3represented in the General Assembly:

4 Section 1. Short title; references to Act. 
5 (a) Short title. This Act may be cited as the First 
6Responder Trauma-Informed Response Training Act.
7 (b) References to Act. This Act may be referenced to as 
8Anna's Law.

9 Section 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:
10 "Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning 
11given to that term in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical 
12Services (EMS) Systems Act.
13 "First responder" means a law enforcement officer, 
14firefighter, emergency medical services personnel, or public 
15safety telecommunicator.
16 "Law enforcement officer" has the meaning given to that 
17term in Section 5 of the Law Enforcement Officer Bulletproof 
18Vest Act.
19 "Onboarding process" means the process in which a first 
20responder is hired.
21 "Public safety telecommunicator" has the meaning given to 
22that term in Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone Systems Act.
23 "Trauma-informed response" means programs, procedures, and 
 
 
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1practices meant to minimize retraumatization of the victim. 

2 Section 10. Trauma-informed response training.
3 (a) Prior to the onboarding processes of a first 
4responder, the individual must complete mandatory pass or fail 
5trauma-informed response training, as established by the 
6Department of Public Health.
7 (b) A first responder must also complete the pass or fail 
8training required under subsection (a) every 18 months after 
9beginning work as a first responder.

10 Section 15. Failure to complete retraining. 
11 (a) If more than 18 months has elapsed after beginning 
12work as a first responder and the first responder has not 
13completed the retraining required under subsection (b) of 
14Section 10, the first responder may not perform trauma-related 
15duties, such as responding to emergency calls, taking 
16statements from victims, or interviewing victims.
17 (b) If a first responder who is certified or licensed by 
18the State or a subdivision of the State has not completed the 
19retraining required under subsection (b) of Section 10, the 
20first responder may be decertified by the certifying entity or 
21the first responder's license may be revoked by the licensing 
22entity if retraining is not completed.

23 Section 90. Conflict with other laws. To the extent this 
 
 
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1Act conflicts with any other provision of law, this Act 
2controls.

3 Section 95. Home rule. A home rule unit may not regulate 
4trauma-informed response training and first responder 
5employment in a manner inconsistent with this Act. This Act is 
6a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII 
7of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by 
8home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the 
9State.

10 Section 100. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended 
11by changing Section 6.3 as follows:

12 (50 ILCS 705/6.3)
13 Sec. 6.3. Discretionary decertification of full-time and 
14part-time law enforcement officers.
15 (a) Definitions. For purposes of this Section 6.3:
16 "Duty to intervene" means an obligation to intervene to 
17prevent harm from occurring that arises when: an officer is 
18present, and has reason to know (1) that excessive force is 
19being used or that any constitutional violation has been 
20committed by a law enforcement official; and (2) the officer 
21has a realistic opportunity to intervene. This duty applies 
22equally to supervisory and nonsupervisory officers. If aid is 
23required, the officer shall not, when reasonable to administer 
 
 
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1aid, knowingly and willingly refuse to render aid as defined 
2by State or federal law. An officer does not violate this duty 
3if the failure to render aid is due to circumstances such as 
4lack of appropriate specialized training, lack of resources or 
5equipment, or if it is unsafe or impracticable to render aid. 
6 "Excessive use of force" means using force in violation of 
7State or federal law.
8 "False statement" means (1) any knowingly false statement 
9provided on a form or report, (2) that the writer does not 
10believe to be true, and (3) that the writer includes to mislead 
11a public servant in performing the public servant's official 
12functions.
13 "Perjury" means that as defined under Sections 32-2 and 
1432-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
15 "Tampers with or fabricates evidence" means if a law 
16enforcement officer (1) has reason to believe that an official 
17proceeding is pending or may be instituted, and (2) alters, 
18destroys, conceals, or removes any record, document, data, 
19video or thing to impair its validity or availability in the 
20proceeding.
21 (b) Decertification conduct. The Board has the authority 
22to decertify a full-time or a part-time law enforcement 
23officer upon a determination by the Board that the law 
24enforcement officer has:
25  (1) committed an act that would constitute a felony or 
26 misdemeanor which could serve as basis for automatic 
 
 
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1 decertification, whether or not the law enforcement 
2 officer was criminally prosecuted, and whether or not the 
3 law enforcement officer's employment was terminated;
4  (2) exercised excessive use of force;
5  (3) failed to comply with the officer's duty to 
6 intervene, including through acts or omissions;
7  (4) tampered with a dash camera or body-worn camera or 
8 data recorded by a dash camera or body-worn camera or 
9 directed another to tamper with or turn off a dash camera 
10 or body-worn camera or data recorded by a dash camera or 
11 body-worn camera for the purpose of concealing, destroying 
12 or altering potential evidence;
13  (5) engaged in the following conduct relating to the 
14 reporting, investigation, or prosecution of a crime: 
15 committed perjury, made a false statement, or knowingly 
16 tampered with or fabricated evidence; and
17  (6) engaged in any unprofessional, unethical, 
18 deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to 
19 the public; such conduct or practice need not have 
20 resulted in actual injury to any person. As used in this 
21 paragraph, the term "unprofessional conduct" shall include 
22 any departure from, or failure to conform to, the minimal 
23 standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of an 
24 officer; and .
25  (7) failed to comply with trauma-informed response 
26 retraining under the First Responder Trauma-Informed 
 
 
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1 Response Training Act. 
2 (b-5) The Board has the authority to decertify a full-time 
3or part-time law enforcement officer notwithstanding whether a 
4law enforcement agency takes disciplinary action against a law 
5enforcement officer for the same underlying conduct as 
6outlined in subsection (b).
7 (c) Notice of Alleged Violation.
8  (1) The following individuals and agencies shall 
9 notify the Board within 7 days of becoming aware of any 
10 violation described in subsection (b):
11   (A) A law enforcement agency as defined in Section 
12 2 or any law enforcement officer of this State. For 
13 this subsection (c), law enforcement agency includes, 
14 but is not limited to, a civilian review board, an 
15 inspector general, and legal counsel for a law 
16 enforcement agency.
17   (B) The Executive Director of the Board;
18   (C) A State's Attorney's Office of this State.
19  "Becoming aware" does not include confidential 
20 communications between agency lawyers and agencies 
21 regarding legal advice. For purposes of this subsection, 
22 "law enforcement agency" does not include the Illinois 
23 Attorney General when providing legal representation to a 
24 law enforcement officer under the State Employee 
25 Indemnification Act.
26  (2) Any person may also notify the Board of any 
 
 
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1 conduct the person believes a law enforcement officer has 
2 committed as described in subsection (b). Such 
3 notifications may be made confidentially. Notwithstanding 
4 any other provision in state law or any collective 
5 bargaining agreement, the Board shall accept notice and 
6 investigate any allegations from individuals who remain 
7 confidential.
8  (3) Upon written request, the Board shall disclose to 
9 the individual or entity who filed a notice of violation 
10 the status of the Board's review.
11 (d) Form. The notice of violation reported under 
12subsection (c) shall be on a form prescribed by the Board in 
13its rules. The form shall be publicly available by paper and 
14electronic means. The form shall include fields for the 
15following information, at a minimum:
16  (1) the full name, address, and telephone number of 
17 the person submitting the notice;
18  (2) if submitted under subsection (c)(1), the agency 
19 name and title of the person submitting the notice;
20  (3) the full name, badge number, employing agency, and 
21 physical description of the officer, if known;
22  (4) the full name or names, address or addresses, 
23 telephone number or numbers, and physical description or 
24 descriptions of any witnesses, if known;
25  (5) a concise statement of facts that describe the 
26 alleged violation and any copies of supporting evidence 
 
 
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1 including but not limited to any photographic, video, or 
2 audio recordings of the incident;
3  (6) whether the person submitting the notice has 
4 notified any other agency; and
5  (7) an option for an individual, who submits directly 
6 to the Board, to consent to have the individual's identity 
7 disclosed. The identity of any individual providing 
8 information or reporting any possible or alleged violation 
9 to the Board shall be kept confidential and may not be 
10 disclosed without the consent of that individual, unless 
11 the individual consents to disclosure of the individual's 
12 name or disclosure of the individual's identity is 
13 otherwise required by law. The confidentiality granted by 
14 this subsection does not preclude the disclosure of the 
15 identity of a person in any capacity other than as the 
16 source of an allegation. 
17 Nothing in this subsection (d) shall preclude the Board 
18from receiving, investigating, or acting upon allegations made 
19confidentially or in a format different from the form provided 
20for in this subsection.
21 (e) Preliminary review.
22  (1) The Board shall complete a preliminary review of 
23 the allegations to determine whether there is sufficient 
24 information to warrant a further investigation of any 
25 violations of the Act. Upon initiating a preliminary 
26 review of the allegations, the Board shall notify the head 
 
 
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1 of the law enforcement agency that employs the law 
2 enforcement officer who is the subject of the allegations. 
3 At the request of the Board, the law enforcement agency 
4 must submit any copies of investigative findings, 
5 evidence, or documentation to the Board in accordance with 
6 rules adopted by the Board to facilitate the Board's 
7 preliminary review. The Board may correspond with the law 
8 enforcement agency, official records clerks or any 
9 investigative agencies in conducting its preliminary 
10 review.
11  (2) During the preliminary review, the Board will take 
12 all reasonable steps to discover any and all objective 
13 verifiable evidence relevant to the alleged violation 
14 through the identification, retention, review, and 
15 analysis of all currently available evidence, including, 
16 but not limited to: all time-sensitive evidence, audio and 
17 video evidence, physical evidence, arrest reports, 
18 photographic evidence, GPS records, computer data, lab 
19 reports, medical documents, and witness interviews. All 
20 reasonable steps will be taken to preserve relevant 
21 evidence identified during the preliminary investigation.
22  (3) If after a preliminary review of the alleged 
23 violation or violations, the Board believes there is 
24 sufficient information to warrant further investigation of 
25 any violations of this Act, the alleged violation or 
26 violations shall be assigned for investigation in 
 
 
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1 accordance with subsection (f).
2  (4) If after a review of the allegations, the Board 
3 believes there is insufficient information supporting the 
4 allegations to warrant further investigation, it may close 
5 a notice. Notification of the Board's decision to close a 
6 notice shall be sent to all relevant individuals, 
7 agencies, and any entities that received notice of the 
8 violation under subsection (c) within 30 days of the 
9 notice being closed, except in cases where the notice is 
10 submitted anonymously if the complainant is unknown.
11  (5) Except when the Board has received notice under 
12 subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c), no 
13 later than 30 days after receiving notice, the Board shall 
14 report any notice of violation it receives to the relevant 
15 law enforcement agency, unless reporting the notice would 
16 jeopardize any subsequent investigation. The Board shall 
17 also record any notice of violation it receives to the 
18 Officer Professional Conduct Database in accordance with 
19 Section 9.2. The Board shall report to the appropriate 
20 State's Attorney any alleged violations that contain 
21 allegations, claims, or factual assertions that, if true, 
22 would constitute a violation of Illinois law. The Board 
23 shall inform the law enforcement officer via certified 
24 mail that it has received a notice of violation against 
25 the law enforcement officer.
26  If the Board determines that due to the circumstances 
 
 
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1 and the nature of the allegation that it would not be 
2 prudent to notify the law enforcement officer and the 
3 officer's law enforcement agency unless and until the 
4 filing of a Formal Complaint, the Board shall document in 
5 the file the reason or reasons a notification was not 
6 made.
7  (6) If the law enforcement officer is involved in a 
8 criminal proceeding on the same subject as the notice of 
9 violation, the Board is responsible for maintaining a 
10 current status report including court dates, hearings, 
11 pleas, adjudication status and sentencing. A State's 
12 Attorney's Office must notify the Board of any criminal 
13 charges filed against a law enforcement officer, and must 
14 provide updates of significant developments to the Board 
15 in a timely manner but no later than 30 days after such 
16 developments.
17 (f) Investigations; requirements. Investigations are to be 
18assigned after a preliminary review, unless the investigations 
19were closed under paragraph (4) of subsection (e), as follows 
20in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f).
21  (1) A law enforcement agency that submits a notice of 
22 violation to the Board under subparagraph (A) of paragraph 
23 (1) of subsection (c) shall be responsible for conducting 
24 an investigation of the underlying allegations except 
25 when: (i) the law enforcement agency refers the notice to 
26 another law enforcement agency or the Board for 
 
 
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1 investigation and such other agency or the Board agrees to 
2 conduct the investigation; (ii) an external, independent, 
3 or civilian oversight agency conducts the investigation in 
4 accordance with local ordinance or other applicable law; 
5 or (iii) the Board has determined that it will conduct the 
6 investigation based upon the facts and circumstances of 
7 the alleged violation, including but not limited to, 
8 investigations regarding the Chief or Sheriff of a law 
9 enforcement agency, familial conflict of interests, 
10 complaints involving a substantial portion of a law 
11 enforcement agency, or complaints involving a policy of a 
12 law enforcement agency. Any agency or entity conducting an 
13 investigation under this paragraph (1) shall submit 
14 quarterly reports to the Board regarding the progress of 
15 the investigation. The quarterly report shall be reviewed 
16 by the individual or individuals at the Board who 
17 conducted the preliminary review, if available. 
18 Any agency or entity conducting an investigation under 
19 this paragraph (1) shall, within 7 days of completing an 
20 investigation, deliver an Investigative Summary Report and 
21 copies of any administrative evidence to the Board. If the 
22 Board finds an investigation conducted under this 
23 paragraph (1) is incomplete, unsatisfactory, or deficient 
24 in any way, the Board may direct the investigating entity 
25 or agency to take any additional investigative steps 
26 deemed necessary to thoroughly and satisfactorily complete 
 
 
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1 the investigation, or the Board may take any steps 
2 necessary to complete the investigation. The investigating 
3 entity or agency or, when necessary, the Board will then 
4 amend and re-submit the Investigative Summary Report to 
5 the Board for approval.
6  The Board shall submit a report to the investigating 
7 entity disclosing the name, address, and telephone numbers 
8 of persons who have knowledge of facts which are the 
9 subject of the investigation and identifying the subject 
10 matter of their knowledge. 
11  (2) The Board shall investigate and complete an 
12 Investigative Summary Report when a State's Attorney's 
13 Office submits a notice of violation to the Board under 
14 (c)(1)(C).
15  (3) When a person submits a notice to the Board under 
16 paragraph (2) of subsection (c), The Board shall assign 
17 the investigation to the law enforcement agency that 
18 employs the law enforcement officer, except when: (i) the 
19 law enforcement agency requests to refer the notice to 
20 another law enforcement agency or the Board for 
21 investigation and such other agency or the Board agrees to 
22 conduct the investigation; (ii) an external, independent, 
23 or civilian oversight agency conducts the investigation in 
24 accordance with local ordinance or other applicable law; 
25 or (iii) the Board has determined that it will conduct the 
26 investigation based upon the facts and circumstances of 
 
 
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1 the alleged violation, including but not limited to, 
2 investigations regarding the Chief or Sheriff of a law 
3 enforcement agency, familial conflict of interests, 
4 complaints involving a substantial portion of a law 
5 enforcement agency, or complaints involving a policy of a 
6 law enforcement agency. 
7  The investigating entity or agency shall submit 
8 quarterly reports to the Board regarding the progress of 
9 the investigation in a form to be determined by the Board. 
10 The quarterly report shall be reviewed by the individual 
11 at the Board who conducted the preliminary review, if 
12 available. 
13 The investigating entity or agency shall, within 7 days of 
14 completing an investigation, deliver an Investigative 
15 Summary Report and copies of any evidence to the Board. If 
16 the Board finds an investigation conducted under this 
17 subsection (f)(3) is incomplete, unsatisfactory, or 
18 deficient in any way, the Board may direct the 
19 investigating entity to take any additional investigative 
20 steps deemed necessary to thoroughly and satisfactorily 
21 complete the investigation, or the Board may take any 
22 steps necessary to complete the investigation. The 
23 investigating entity or agency or, when necessary, the 
24 Board will then amend and re-submit the Investigative 
25 Summary Report to the Board for approval. The 
26 investigating entity shall cooperate with and assist the 
 
 
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1 Board, as necessary, in any subsequent investigation.
2  (4) Concurrent Investigations. The Board may, at any 
3 point, initiate a concurrent investigation under this 
4 section. The original investigating entity shall timely 
5 communicate, coordinate, and cooperate with the Board to 
6 the fullest extent. The Board shall promulgate rules that 
7 shall address, at a minimum, the sharing of information 
8 and investigative means such as subpoenas and interviewing 
9 witnesses.
10  (5) Investigative Summary Report. An Investigative 
11 Summary Report shall contain, at a minimum, the 
12 allegations and elements within each allegation followed 
13 by the testimonial, documentary, or physical evidence that 
14 is relevant to each such allegation or element listed and 
15 discussed in association with it. All persons who have 
16 been interviewed and listed in the Investigative Summary 
17 Report will be identified as a complainant, witness, 
18 person with specialized knowledge, or law enforcement 
19 employee.
20  (6) Each law enforcement agency shall adopt a written 
21 policy regarding the investigation of conduct under 
22 subsection (a) that involves a law enforcement officer 
23 employed by that law enforcement agency. The written 
24 policy adopted must include the following, at a minimum:
25   (a) Each law enforcement officer shall immediately 
26 report any conduct under subsection (b) to the 
 
 
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1 appropriate supervising officer.
2   (b) The written policy under this Section shall be 
3 available for inspection and copying under the Freedom 
4 of Information Act, and not subject to any exemption 
5 of that Act.
6  (7) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a law 
7 enforcement agency from conducting an investigation for 
8 the purpose of internal discipline. However, any such 
9 investigation shall be conducted in a manner that avoids 
10 interference with, and preserves the integrity of, any 
11 separate investigation by the Board being conducted.
12 (g) Formal complaints. Upon receipt of an Investigative 
13Summary Report, the Board shall review the Report and any 
14relevant evidence obtained and determine whether there is 
15reasonable basis to believe that the law enforcement officer 
16committed any conduct that would be deemed a violation of this 
17Act. If after reviewing the Report and any other relevant 
18evidence obtained, the Board determines that a reasonable 
19basis does exist, the Board shall file a formal complaint with 
20the Certification Review Panel.
21 (h) Formal Complaint Hearing.
22  (1) Upon issuance of a formal complaint, the Panel 
23 shall set the matter for an initial hearing in front of an 
24 administrative law judge. At least 30 days before the date 
25 set for an initial hearing, the Panel must, in writing, 
26 notify the law enforcement officer subject to the 
 
 
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1 complaint of the following:
2   (i) the allegations against the law enforcement 
3 officer, the time and place for the hearing, and 
4 whether the law enforcement officer's certification 
5 has been temporarily suspended under Section 8.3;
6   (ii) the right to file a written answer to the 
7 complaint with the Panel within 30 days after service 
8 of the notice;
9   (iii) if the law enforcement officer fails to 
10 comply with the notice of the default order in 
11 paragraph (2), the Panel shall enter a default order 
12 against the law enforcement officer along with a 
13 finding that the allegations in the complaint are 
14 deemed admitted, and that the law enforcement 
15 officer's certification may be revoked as a result; 
16 and
17   (iv) the law enforcement officer may request an 
18 informal conference to surrender the officer's 
19 certification.
20  (2) The Board shall send the law enforcement officer 
21 notice of the default order. The notice shall state that 
22 the officer has 30 days to notify the Board in writing of 
23 their desire to have the order vacated and to appear 
24 before the Board. If the law enforcement officer does not 
25 notify the Board within 30 days, the Board may set the 
26 matter for hearing. If the matter is set for hearing, the 
 
 
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1 Board shall send the law enforcement officer the notice of 
2 the date, time and location of the hearing. If the law 
3 enforcement officer or counsel for the officer does 
4 appear, at the Board's discretion, the hearing may proceed 
5 or may be continued to a date and time agreed upon by all 
6 parties. If on the date of the hearing, neither the law 
7 enforcement officer nor counsel for the officer appears, 
8 the Board may proceed with the hearing for default in 
9 their absence. 
10  (3) If the law enforcement officer fails to comply 
11 with paragraph (2), all of the allegations contained in 
12 the complaint shall be deemed admitted and the law 
13 enforcement officer shall be decertified if, by a majority 
14 vote of the panel, the conduct charged in the complaint is 
15 found to constitute sufficient grounds for decertification 
16 under this Act. Notice of the decertification decision may 
17 be served by personal delivery, by mail, or, at the 
18 discretion of the Board, by electronic means as adopted by 
19 rule to the address or email address specified by the law 
20 enforcement officer in the officer's last communication 
21 with the Board. Notice shall also be provided to the law 
22 enforcement officer's employing law enforcement agency.
23  (4) The Board, at the request of the law enforcement 
24 officer subject to the Formal Complaint, may suspend a 
25 hearing on a Formal Complaint for no more than one year if 
26 a concurrent criminal matter is pending. If the law 
 
 
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1 enforcement officer requests to have the hearing 
2 suspended, the law enforcement officer's certification 
3 shall be deemed inactive until the law enforcement 
4 officer's Formal Complaint hearing concludes. The Board or 
5 the law enforcement officer may request to have the 
6 hearing suspended for up to 6 additional months for good 
7 cause. This request may be renewed. For purposes of this 
8 paragraph (4), "good cause" means an incident or 
9 occurrence that is beyond the control of the requester and 
10 that prevents the hearing from occurring, or holding the 
11 hearing would impose an undue hardship or prejudice on the 
12 requester. 
13  (5) Surrender of certification or waiver. Upon the 
14 Board's issuance of a complaint, and prior to hearing on 
15 the matter, a law enforcement officer may choose to 
16 surrender the officer's certification or waiver by 
17 notifying the Board in writing of the officer's decision 
18 to do so. Upon receipt of such notification from the law 
19 enforcement officer, the Board shall immediately decertify 
20 the officer, or revoke any waiver previously granted. In 
21 the case of a surrender of certification or waiver, the 
22 Board's proceeding shall terminate.
23  (6) Appointment of administrative law judges. The 
24 Board shall retain any attorney licensed to practice law 
25 in the State of Illinois to serve as an administrative law 
26 judge in any action involving a law enforcement officer 
 
 
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1 under this Act. The administrative law judge shall be 
2 retained to a term of no greater than 4 years. If more than 
3 one judge is retained, the terms shall be staggered. The 
4 administrative law judge has full authority to conduct the 
5 hearings.
6  Administrative law judges will receive initial and 
7 annual training that is adequate in quality, quantity, 
8 scope, and type, and will cover, at minimum the following 
9 topics:
10   (i) constitutional and other relevant law on 
11 police-community encounters, including the law on the 
12 use of force and stops, searches, and arrests;
13   (ii) police tactics;
14   (iii) investigations of police conduct;
15   (iv) impartial policing;
16   (v) policing individuals in crisis;
17   (vi) Illinois police policies, procedures, and 
18 disciplinary rules;
19   (vii) procedural justice; and
20   (viii) community outreach.
21  The Board shall determine the content and extent of 
22 the training within the scope provided for by this 
23 subsection. 
24  (7) Hearing. At the hearing, the administrative law 
25 judge will hear the allegations alleged in the complaint. 
26 The law enforcement officer, the counsel of the officer's 
 
 
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1 choosing, and the Board, or the officer's counsel, shall 
2 be afforded the opportunity to present any pertinent 
3 statements, testimony, evidence, and arguments. The law 
4 enforcement officer shall be afforded the opportunity to 
5 request that the Board compel the attendance of witnesses 
6 and production of related documents. After the conclusion 
7 of the hearing, the administrative law judge shall report 
8 any findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommended 
9 disposition to the Panel. If the law enforcement officer 
10 objects to any procedural or substantive legal portion of 
11 the report, the officer may do so by written brief filed 
12 with the Panel within 14 days after receipt of the report. 
13 The Panel may grant reasonable extensions for good cause 
14 shown or when mutually agreed upon by the parties. 
15  No later than 28 days before the hearing, a party 
16 shall disclose the following:
17   (i) The name and, if known, the address and 
18 telephone number of each individual likely to have 
19 information relevant to the hearing that the 
20 disclosing party may use to support its claims or 
21 defenses. This includes, but is not limited to, any 
22 name that has previously been held as confidential by 
23 the Board.
24   (ii) A copy of any documents and videos that are in 
25 the possession, custody, or control of the party, and 
26 that the disclosing party may use to support its 
 
 
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1 claims or defenses. 
2  (8) Certification Review Meeting. Upon receipt of the 
3 administrative law judge's findings of fact, conclusions 
4 of law, and recommended disposition, and any submitted 
5 objections from the law enforcement officer, the Panel 
6 shall call for a certification review meeting.
7  In such a meeting, the Panel may adjourn into a closed 
8 conference for the purposes of deliberating on the 
9 evidence presented during the hearing. In closed 
10 conference, the Panel shall consider the hearing officer's 
11 findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommended 
12 disposition and may deliberate on all evidence and 
13 testimony received and may consider the weight and 
14 credibility to be given to the evidence received. No new 
15 or additional evidence may be presented to the Panel. 
16 After concluding its deliberations, the Panel shall 
17 convene in open session for its consideration of the 
18 matter. If a simple majority of the Panel finds that no 
19 allegations in the complaint supporting one or more 
20 charges of misconduct are proven by clear and convincing 
21 evidence, then the Panel shall recommend to the Board that 
22 the complaint be dismissed. If a simple majority of the 
23 Panel finds that the allegations in the complaint 
24 supporting one or more charges of misconduct are proven by 
25 clear and convincing evidence, then the Panel shall 
26 recommend to the Board to decertify the officer. The Panel 
 
 
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1 shall prepare a summary report as soon as practicable 
2 after the completion of the meeting including the 
3 following: the hearing officer's findings of fact, 
4 conclusions of law, recommended disposition, and the 
5 Panel's order.
6  (9) Final action by the Board. After receiving the 
7 Panel's recommendations and any objections by the law 
8 enforcement officer, and after due consideration of the 
9 Panel's recommendations, the Board, by majority vote, 
10 shall issue a final decision to decertify the law 
11 enforcement officer or take no action in regard to the law 
12 enforcement officer. No new or additional evidence may be 
13 presented to the Board. If the Board makes a final 
14 decision contrary to the recommendations of the Panel, the 
15 Board shall set forth in its final written decision the 
16 specific written reasons for not following the Panel's 
17 recommendations. A copy of the Board's final decision 
18 shall be served upon the law enforcement officer by the 
19 Board, either personally or as provided in this Act for 
20 the service of a notice of hearing. A copy of the Board's 
21 final decision also shall be delivered to the last 
22 employing law enforcement agency, the complainant, and the 
23 Panel.
24  (10) Reconsideration of the Board's Decision. Within 
25 30 days after service of the Board's final decision, the 
26 Panel or the law enforcement officer may file a written 
 
 
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1 motion for reconsideration with the Review Committee. The 
2 motion for reconsideration shall specify the particular 
3 grounds for reconsideration. The non-moving party may 
4 respond to the motion for reconsideration. The Review 
5 Committee shall only address the issues raised by the 
6 parties. 
7  The Review Committee may deny the motion for 
8 reconsideration, or it may grant the motion in whole or in 
9 part and issue a new final decision in the matter. The 
10 Review Committee must notify the law enforcement officer 
11 and their last employing law enforcement agency within 14 
12 days of a denial and state the reasons for denial.
13 (i) This Section applies to conduct by a full-time or 
14part-time law enforcement officer in violation of subsection 
15(b) that occurred before, on, or after the effective date of 
16this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.
17 (j) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 
18the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 
19102nd General Assembly and Public Act 101-652 take effect July 
201, 2022. 
21(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22.)

22 Section 105. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems 
23Act is amended by changing Section 3.50 and adding Section 
243.51 as follows:

 
 
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1 (210 ILCS 50/3.50)
2 Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure 
3levels. 
4 (a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or "EMT" means a person 
5who has successfully completed a course in basic life support 
6as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the 
7Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act 
8and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and 
9practices within an EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical 
10Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall 
11continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency 
12Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical 
13Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires. 
14 (b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" 
15means a person who has successfully completed a course in 
16intermediate life support as approved by the Department, is 
17currently licensed by the Department in accordance with 
18standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the 
19Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an 
20Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System. 
21 (b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" 
22means a person who has successfully completed a course in 
23basic and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved 
24by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in 
25accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules 
26adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices 
 
 
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1within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System. 
2 (c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who has 
3successfully completed a course in advanced life support care 
4as approved by the Department, is licensed by the Department 
5in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules 
6adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices 
7within an Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency 
8Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this 
9Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a 
10Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical 
11Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires. 
12 (c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First 
13Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a 
14course in emergency medical response as approved by the 
15Department and provides emergency medical response services in 
16accordance with the level of care established by the National 
17EMS Educational Standards Emergency Medical Responder course 
18as modified by the Department, or who provides services as 
19part of an EMS System response plan, as approved by the 
20Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall have the 
21authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, practice, 
22and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency Medical 
23Responders.
24 On August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 
2598-973), a person who is licensed by the Department as a First 
26Responder and has completed a Department-approved course in 
 
 
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1first responder defibrillator training based on, or equivalent 
2to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other standards 
3previously recognized by the Department shall be eligible for 
4licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon meeting the 
5licensure requirements and submitting an application to the 
6Department. A valid First Responder license issued under this 
7Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an 
8Emergency Medical Responder license until the First Responder 
9license expires.
10 (c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully 
11compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as 
12modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 
13months after the adoption of the administrative rules. 
14 (d) The Department shall have the authority and 
15responsibility to:
16  (1) Prescribe education and training requirements, 
17 which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all 
18 levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the 
19 National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications 
20 to those curricula specified by the Department through 
21 rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
22  (2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all 
23 levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement 
24 that all phases of instruction, training, and field 
25 experience be completed before taking the appropriate 
26 licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the 
 
 
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1 appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the 
2 Department's examination, but are responsible for making 
3 their own arrangements for taking the National Registry 
4 examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements 
5 for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of 
6 the United States under this paragraph (2), the Department 
7 shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical 
8 training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and 
9 clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are 
10 recognized. 
11  (2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure 
12 from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of 
13 the United States with military emergency medical 
14 training. Applications shall be filed with the Department 
15 within one year after military discharge and shall 
16 contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military 
17 emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of 
18 the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a 
19 detailed description of the applicant's clinical 
20 experience. The Department may request additional and 
21 clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the 
22 application, including the applicant's training and 
23 experience, consistent with the standards set forth under 
24 subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the 
25 application clearly demonstrates that the training and 
26 experience meet such standards, the Department shall offer 
 
 
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1 the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a 
2 Department-approved EMS personnel examination for the 
3 level of license for which the applicant is qualified. 
4 Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue 
5 a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of 
6 this Act that are otherwise applicable to the level of EMS 
7 personnel license issued. 
8  (3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, 
9 or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, 
10 training and examination requirements.
11  (4) Prescribe annual continuing education and 
12 relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure 
13 levels. 
14  (5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, 
15 A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic every 4 years, 
16 based on their compliance with continuing education and 
17 relicensure requirements as required by the Department 
18 pursuant to this Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall 
19 have 100 hours of approved continuing education, an EMT-I 
20 and an advanced EMT shall have 80 hours of approved 
21 continuing education, and an EMT shall have 60 hours of 
22 approved continuing education. An Illinois licensed EMR, 
23 EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHPA, PHAPRN, or 
24 PHRN whose license has been expired for less than 36 
25 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. 
26 Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit 
 
 
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1 satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical 
2 education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by 
3 the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a 
4 positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical 
5 Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for 
6 retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for 
7 the level of EMS personnel license sought to be 
8 reinstated.
9  (6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, 
10 A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who 
11 qualifies, based on standards and procedures established 
12 by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
13  (7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, 
14 licensure, and license renewal.
15  (8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the 
16 license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an 
17 impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law 
18 judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance 
19 of the evidence shows one or more of the following:
20   (A) The licensee has not met continuing education 
21 or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the 
22 Department;
23   (B) The licensee has failed to maintain 
24 proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she 
25 is licensed;
26   (C) The licensee, during the provision of medical 
 
 
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1 services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or 
2 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to 
3 deceive, defraud, or harm the public;
4   (D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has 
5 violated standards of performance and conduct as 
6 prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant 
7 to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;
8   (E) The licensee is physically impaired to the 
9 extent that he or she cannot physically perform the 
10 skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, 
11 as verified by a physician, unless the person is on 
12 inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;
13   (F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the 
14 extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate 
15 judgment, skill and safety for performing the 
16 functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified 
17 by a physician, unless the person is on inactive 
18 status pursuant to Department regulations;
19   (G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule 
20 adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or
21   (H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a 
22 plea of guilty or nolo contendere) by a court of 
23 competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 
24 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent 
25 offense; or . 
26   (I) The licensee has failed to comply with 
 
 
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1 trauma-informed response retraining under the First 
2 Responder Trauma-Informed Response Training Act. 
3  (9) Prescribe education and training requirements in 
4 the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all 
5 levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS 
6 Educational Standards and any modifications to those 
7 curricula specified by the Department through rules 
8 adopted pursuant to this Act. 
9 (d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, 
10PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National 
11Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves 
12as a volunteer for units of local government with a population 
13base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit 
14organization that serves a service area with a population base 
15of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department 
16for a waiver of the fees described under paragraph (7) of 
17subsection (d) of this Section on a form prescribed by the 
18Department. 
19 The education requirements prescribed by the Department 
20under this Section must allow for the suspension of those 
21requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or 
22reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois 
23National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive 
24order of the President of the United States, an act of the 
25Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at 
26the time that the member would otherwise be required to 
 
 
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1fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must 
2fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or 
3her release from active duty. 
4 (e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS 
5Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a 
6condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts 
7with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining 
8agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall 
9not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining 
10agreement.
11 (f) At the time of applying for or renewing his or her 
12license, an applicant for a license or license renewal may 
13submit an email address to the Department. The Department 
14shall keep the email address on file as a form of contact for 
15the individual. The Department shall send license renewal 
16notices electronically and by mail to a licensee who provides 
17the Department with his or her email address. The notices 
18shall be sent at least 60 days prior to the expiration date of 
19the license. 
20(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-153, eff. 1-1-20; 
21102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-623, eff. 8-27-21.)

22 (210 ILCS 50/3.51 new)
23 Sec. 3.51. Trauma-informed response training; rules. The 
24Department shall adopt rules to implement the trauma-informed 
25response training required under the First Responder 
 
 
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